For me, they are both correct, they mean the same thing and I see no difference in formality. For a (slightly more) formal version, I would start them with "It is/It has been", not the contractions.
I just came across two interesting sentences in English Grammar in Use:
#1. It's two years since I last saw Joe.
#2. It's been two years since I last saw Joe.
According to Raymond Murphy, both mean the same (and both are correct).
However, #1 sounds unusual to me.
1. Could it be that #1 is less formal than #2 (and/or less common)?
2. Could it be that #1 is more common in BrE than in AmE? (English Grammar in Use is written for BrE. There is also a version of the book written for students of AmE, but unfortunately, I don't own it.)
Thank you in advance.
Last edited by Chicken Sandwich; 16-Sep-2012 at 16:47.
For me, they are both correct, they mean the same thing and I see no difference in formality. For a (slightly more) formal version, I would start them with "It is/It has been", not the contractions.
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What is the reason for using the present simple tense in this sentence?
It's two years since I last saw Joe.
Is it because the statement is always true?
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Thank emsr2d2!
If so, can I use the present simple tense for everything that is absolutely presently true?
I am always loth to say that you can "always" do something or use any particular construction for "everything" as there are plenty of exceptions to every rule.
In fact, here's one: "The sun is shining" is presently true (OK, that's a lie, it's really cloudy where I am at the moment but never mind!). However, we don't say "The sun shines" in that context, we only use the present continuous.
So I will say no to your question.
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