I see no difference in intended meaning between "I'm able to see you tomorrow" and "I can see you tomorrow."
What does Mr. Lewis say is different about them?
In Michael Lewis's book The English Verb: An Exploration of Structure and Meaning I found this:
How do the sentences in bold differ in meaning.?My doctor can say I can see you tomorrow or I ’m able to see you tomorrow.
Both are possible, and they are different. Difference of form implies difference
of meaning, and that difference can be understood.
I see no difference in intended meaning between "I'm able to see you tomorrow" and "I can see you tomorrow."
What does Mr. Lewis say is different about them?
I'm not a teacher, but I write for a living. Please don't ask me about 2nd conditionals, but I'm a safe bet for what reads well in (American) English.
I do not know. Here is the full paragraph:
8. Paradigms do not need to be complete
My doctor can say I can see you tomorrow or I ’m able to see you tomorrow.
Both are possible, and they are different. Difference of form implies difference
of meaning, and that difference can be understood. In those
circumstances it is nonsense to pretend that “the infinitive of can is to be
able to.
But I would let it go if it conveys the same meaning.
I don't find "I'm able to see you tomorrow" to be a very natural sentence.