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I read the following sentences from a book.
1. I 've got a headache.
2. I 've got stomachache.
In sentence 1, the author use "a" before headache. Why doesn't the author use "a" before stomachache in sentences 2? I looked "stomachache" up from dictionaries, it is a countable or uncountable noun. Is stomachache a countable or uncountable noun in sentence 2?
Thanks.
There should have been an "a" before both of these words.
http://www.macmillandictionary.com/dictionary/american/toothache
He's got a really bad toothache.
http://www.macmillandictionary.com/dictionary/british/toothache
He's got really bad toothache.
It seems that American English use an "a" before "toothache" whereas British English does not use an article before it.
That is correct.Quote:
Originally Posted by Winwin2011
Well...what can I say? They also go to hospital and go to university. Perhaps one of our English members can provide us with a sound reason why the article is not required.
"Headache" is the only one of the standard "aches" we do use the article with.
I have a headache.
I have stomachache.
I have toothache.
I have bellyache.
I have tummy ache.
I have earache.
No, that's just British usage. We don't have to have a reason for it, any more than you have to have a reason for AmE usage.Quote:
Originally Posted by Gillnetter
***** NOT A TEACHER *****
Hello, Winwin:
And don't forget: If your significant other (wife / husband / girlfriend/ boyfriend) leaves you, you will have a
heartache -- maybe!
James
Some of us will heave an enormous sigh of relief.Quote:
Originally Posted by TheParser