- 1 Post By Odessa Dawn
- 3 Post By 5jj
"have/has been in" versus "have/has been to"
Originally Posted by 900145163
The usage of since at the end of sentence tells us that the person still lives in the United States of America. While "have been to" as 5jj said that "She has been to Japan" means she no longer there. I checked Google and found ( Common Mistakes in English - Has gone to vs. Has been to). After initial research, I think the prepositions play an important role. Also, the word since can't be used with "have been to."
Originally Posted by 5jj
To sum it up, when I see the preposition to after "have been," it means that the action has been completed. On the other hand, the preposition in gives us a clear-cut answer that the action is still happening. Am I right? Will you clear it up please?
Last edited by Odessa Dawn; 31-Jan-2013 at 11:08.
Re: "have/has been in" versus "have/has been to"
As is so often the case in English, Context is everything.
Originally Posted by Odessa Dawn
A. I haven't seen you for a long time George. What have you been up to?
B: I've been in Scotland. I had a short-term contract on an oil rig.
In that sentence, 'in' is perfectly acceptable. The situation is clearly completed.
Context is important. Please provide enough for us to be able to deal effectively with your question.
Your thread title should include all or part of the word/phrase being discussed.
If you just want to know the meaning of a word, try OneLook Dictionary Search first.
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