Is "I have gone to..." grammatically wrong?

[Tdol]

Originally Posted by bhaisahab

It is completely illogical to say as opposed to write "I have gone to anywhere". If you had gone, you woudn't be there to say it.

How about in a message left on the kitchen table?

[2006]

Originally Posted by bhaisahab

It is completely illogical to say as opposed to write "I have gone to anywhere". If you had gone, you woudn't be there to say it.

Why is it illogical? After all, "gone" is the past participle of "go".
I went to London four times this year.
I have gone to London four times this year.

[BobK]

Originally Posted by 2006

Why is it illogical? After all, "gone" is the past participle of "go".
I went to London four times this year.
I have gone to London four times this year.

This is the British/American difference already noted. Your second sentence would be unacceptable in British English. 'I have gone to the shops' would be OK (in a note on the kitchen table), but not in speech; but on returning, you would say 'I have been to the shops'.

b