has or had

[Francois]

'I should have' is correct.
'I should of' is wrong, though that's not the first time I see it. I think it's either an ESL mistake (b/c they sound alike) or some sort of slang-ish spelling.

FRC

[RonBee]

Say:

• That is not the first time I have seen it.

("I should of" is a mistake sometimes made by native speakers.)

:)

[Francois]

Now that's an ESL mistake.

FRC

[jack]

I had ran this before and I have no errors. <--correct? What does this mean?
I have ran this before and I have no errors. <--correct? What does this mean?

[RonBee]

Originally Posted by jack

I had ran this before and I have no errors. <--correct? What does this mean?

Say:

• I had run this before, and I had no errors.

Or:

• I ran this before, and I had no errors.

Outside of context, it is hard to tell exactly what it means, but I would say it was some kind of test in which no mistakes (errors) were found.

Originally Posted by jack

I have ran this before and I have no errors. <--correct? What does this mean?

Say:

• I have run this before, and I had no errors.

It is a test that you took (or "ran") before, and you found no mistakes (errors) on it.

:)

[jack]

"I have run this before, and I had no errors."

Why is "run" not "ran"? Why don't we use the past participle?

For "had" is it wrong to use "have"? If so, why? I can't use tense consistency here?

[Tdol]

The verb is run\ran\run, so it is the past participle. If you want to use tense consistency, then you would have to choose the past tense for the first verb. However, the present perfect works well as the time of the action is past but not specified.

I have run this before, and I had no errors. (Once)
I have run this before, and I have had no errors. (A number of times)

[Casiopea]

Originally Posted by Francois

Now that's an ESL mistake.

FRC

:D It's more commonly known as a native speaker error. :D

have , when contracted, sounds like of:

should have => should've => should of

and so speakers write what they hear: They write "of" instead of "have".

The sound change has to do with syllable final devoicing:

voiced [v] becomes voiceless [f] :D

[Francois]

Originally Posted by FRC

Now that's an ESL mistake.

Originally Posted by Cas

It's more commonly known as a native speaker error

I was refering to Ron pulling me up on:

Originally Posted by Ron

Say:
That is not the first time I have seen it.

I know that some native speakers sometimes use 'of' instead of 'have', that some would write 'helluva' etc. I believe it's more of a fancy spelling than a real error.

TY anyway :)

FRC

[Tdol]

It's more than that- some people will write 'I would of told her'.