Oh, 5jj, I don't believe you responded to post #15 either. I think I indicated you had responded to everything, so I'll take responsibility for that, but if you could give me your thoughts on that post, it would be nice.
It is the difference between "There is" and "There are." I'm not really being inconsistent.In post #6 you wrote, “Regardless, there are only a couple ways to take my comment. You either omit "have" or "got" and the results are obvious”. (My underlining.)
In post #8 you wrote, “It's like saying, "There's a couple people I want you to meet." If teachers want to teach that as acceptable, I'm just glad I'm out of school”.
That’s fine by me, though it strikes me as a little strange that you should feel uncomfortable about a usage that appears in your own writing.
I think this is contradictory to your comment:In some contexts the present perfect of GET has come to have the same meaning as the present simple of HAVE.
Am I wrong?'Got', on its own, means nothing in 'have got'. 'Have got' has the same meaning as 'have'.
- To have current possession of. Used in the present perfect form with the meaning of the present: We've got plenty of cash.
The American Heritage® Dictionary of the English Language, Fourth Edition Copyright © 2000 by Houghton Mifflin Company. Published by Houghton Mifflin Company. All rights reserved.
I feel if the present perfect form is used with the meaning of the present, the wrong tense was used. I mean, if the tense were used properly, you wouldn't have to explain it in the context of another tense--you would simply explain the tense and how that tense is used.
Thanks for the quote. Why do you feel Have got is restricted to informal style? If it is grammatically correct, wouldn't it be perfectly acceptable at all levels of style?The idiom have got historically derives from a perfect construction. This is transparent in BeE, where got is the past participle of get. [...] Have gotis restricted to informal style, but is otherwise very common, especially in BrE.
Huddleston, Rodney & Pullum, Geoffrey K (2002.112) The Cambridge Grammar of the English Language, Cambridge: CUP
This quote says that have got is an idiom. Isn't this an indication that it isn't grammatically correct?
Last edited by Tuco; 29-Jul-2012 at 02:14. Reason: Added note regarding the term "idiom"
Oh, 5jj, I don't believe you responded to post #15 either. I think I indicated you had responded to everything, so I'll take responsibility for that, but if you could give me your thoughts on that post, it would be nice.
Many grammatically correct forms are used only informally.
An interesting response to a question asking how you can both condemn and use a construction.It is the difference between "There is" and "There are." I'm not really being inconsistent.
As far as Britain is concerned, most native speakers and writers on the subject believe that have got, with the meaning of 'possess', is grammatically acceptable. I have the impression that many Americans feel the same. You seem determined to maintain your belief that it is ungrammatical. Fine. I'll leave you to it.
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[QUOTE T50jj]Many grammatically correct forms are used only informally.
[/QUOTE]
Hi Troll,
Once again, descriptive sources simply don't tell the whole story. It's confusing. They should take a page from Style Towards Clarity and Grace, and try to be more clear. When you teach description and say that an expression is "idiomatic," and used informally, it paints a picture. You don't like to admit that. You don't even like to address it.
Unanswered Question: Again, you don't address why "have got" is idiomatic." Nobody that "follows this thread and "likes" your comments reads my comments and says, "You know, Tuco is right. Every time he writes something, he points out things that Troll didn't address." They are as unobservant as you are. If I seem determined to keep to my belief system, wipe the crust out of your eyes and realize that I have a reason to--or don't. You like to put a stick in my craw and giggle that you are trolling me effectively.
You don't see the difference between "There are a couple buildings across the street" and "There is a couple buildings across the street? You think it is interesting that I make that distinction? You don't see that I don't both condemn and use a construction? They are different.An interesting response to a question asking how you can both condemn and use a construction.
Unanswered Question:
Tuco: I think this is contradictory to your comment:In some contexts the present perfect of GET has come to have the same meaning as the present simple of HAVE.'Got', on its own, means nothing in 'have got'. 'Have got' has the same meaning as 'have'.
Uncontested Comment Troll:
I feel if the present perfect form is used with the meaning of the present, the wrong tense was used. I mean, if the tense were used properly, you wouldn't have to explain it in the context of another tense--you would simply explain the tense and how that tense is used.
Does Red5 run this joint? Somebody needs to have a talk with you. You could at least admit that the answer to your question was in fact waiting for you as you told me, "You have yet to answer my question..." People like your comments and all they remember is what you say, and it makes you feel all puffed. You never act like a mench and say, "Oh, you had already answered my question. Sorry." You are a troll.
Enough! When you call a moderator a "troll" you have crossed a line.
This thead is closed.
I'm not a teacher, but I write for a living. Please don't ask me about 2nd conditionals, but I'm a safe bet for what reads well in (American) English.