English Language Discussion Forums

**Tdol** · #1 07-Sep-2003, 20:52

Which is correct?

**RonBee** · #2 07-Sep-2003, 21:42

Only the second one is idiomatic English.

:)

**Tdol** · #3 08-Sep-2003, 13:45

The first would require inversion- Never does she...

**RonBee** · #4 08-Sep-2003, 21:20

Quote:

Originally Posted by tdol

The first would require inversion- Never does she...

That would work. It would be quite unusual, but it would be acceptable English.

:)

#5 09-Sep-2003, 03:59

Perhaps it's just me, but none of them make sense. The last part of the sentence "...go out at night." doesn't make sense with any of the choices because you have "goes" in all them, and they all don't make sense.

**Tdol** · #6 09-Sep-2003, 12:35

Thanks, Wil, I have corrected the typo. ;-(

**RonBee** · #7 09-Sep-2003, 13:00

Was goes and go in the same sentence? (I didn't notice.)

Can you edit polls on this forum?

#8 10-Sep-2003, 01:58

Gracias, tdol. I thought that's what you meant, but I wanted to make sure.

**Tdol** · #9 10-Sep-2003, 21:26

Have you voted now?

tomboy186 · #10 25-Jan-2007, 03:12

In my opinion, I choose the second one. moreover, I als agree that in the first one needs inversion. Like" Never does she go....". If we use this structure, our writing will be more colorful. Right?