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would as "intentional" or "unintentional"?
When do we have to interpret would as intentional or not intentional?
The following could be confusing.
"If I met you in the past, we would have become friends"
(actually I came to know you not in the past, I really regret I didn't meet you before, maybe this example is wrong, they might say we could have...)
Is it "we could have tried to become friends"(willingness) or "we could come to be friends"?(without willingness)
No one can know what would have happened in the past, so to state is as simple fact may seem odd. Regardless, I'd say it's stated as a factual outcome of knowing each other. However, you cannot be made to be friends unwillingly. So it's both, I guess.
But you are drawing distinctions that few native speakers bother to even consider. Do the words translate differently? What difference does it make?
Thank you, but I want to know the general rules.
1. If I went to the party, it would have been fun for me.
2. If I went to the party, I would have met my friend, Jane.
Does would have unwillingness result in 1 when it's followed by "be" verb mostly? And the other way when it's followed by an "action" verb like meet?
What do you think is the rule in general?
Your answer will be highly appreciated.
This sentence is incorrect in my opinion. It should read:Quote:
Originally Posted by keannu
"If I had met you in the past, we would have become friends"
Barb, is it just that you didn't notice it or do you find the original sentence correct?
I didn't notice it -- but I did notice the party one, and thought "If I had gone" instead of "If I went."
keannu, I'm sorry, I can't help you. I don't understand the points you're driving at with these unwillingness questions. I'm going to move the thread to the linguistics section, because it's clearly some fine point of the language and has little to do with how to use the word "would" correctly -- which you do.