[General] why is "have" different from "make"

[najm]

why isn't the rule of long vowel applied when pronouncing "have" and applied in the word "make"

[Soup]

Originally Posted by najm

why isn't the rule of long vowel applied when pronouncing "have" and applied in the word "make"

The -e on have is the result of a spelling convention: Norman scribes added -e to a word if it ended in [v] (e.g., have, give) to differentiate the sound [v] from the sound [u], because at that time the letters <u> and <v> were used interchangeably to spell both the vowel [u] and the consonant [v].

Read more here.

[bhaisahab]

Originally Posted by Soup

The -e on have is the result of a spelling convention: Norman scribes added -e to a word if it ended in [v] (e.g., have, give) to differentiate the sound [v] from the sound [u], because at that time the letters <u> and <v> were used interchangeably to spell both the vowel [u] and the consonant [v].

Read more here.

Interesting link Soup, thanks.