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#1
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| with the words, "should, could,would, might" i believe its incorrect to use "of" after these words, and that you must use "have". is this correct, never?? the reason i ask, is because im a native english speaker, but when i say "I should have" it sounds like " I should ave/of" when spoken quicky. why is this? |
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#2
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| Actually, most of us say "shoulda, coulda, woulda, etc." Have is the only word that goes with those modals in the past perfect tense. If you are an English speaker studying English. the first thing you should realize is that speaking English and writing English are two completely different things. Something that can be very clear when spoken can be confusing when written, and vice-versa. Now for my teacherly advice: Pay attention in class and practice, practice, practice. You may not become a good writer, but you will get to Carnagie Hall. Mike Last edited by mykwyner; 04-Jun-2005 at 00:16. |
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#3
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| Quote:
The "f" in "of" sounds like "v". The vowel "o" in "of" is often reduced as well. When "should" and "have" form a contraction, "have" sounds like "of". of - schwa vowel + v sound have - schwa vowel + v sound They sound the same, but they're not really the same. One of them should've said something. One 'f them should've said something. One'v them shoud've said something. |
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