It'd and love'd etc.

Hi,

I know 'it'd' is pronounced as two syllables.

But am I right in assuming 'love'd' (love would or love had) is pronounced as one syllable. This in connection with poetry-metre/rhythm.

Thank you,
Joost

It'd (never written, by the way,e xcept perhaps as dialogue) would sound like "it-id."

If you wanted to say something like "love had come, and love had gone" it would sound like "luvvid come and luvvid gone."

It would still be two syllables for me.

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Originally Posted by Balkenende

Hi,

I know 'it'd' is pronounced as two syllables.

But am I right in assuming 'love'd' (love would or love had) is pronounced as one syllable. This in connection with poetry-metre/rhythm.

Thank you,
Joost

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I wouldn't use either in contracted form in the context (or lack of context) presented, but given a possibility, certainly not one syllable. Perhaps you could provide an example of a complete sentence(s) for a more considered opinion.

Thanks for the answers so far.

Part of the sentence is 'love'd have ended long ago'. (would have ended)
(I cannot simply rearrange words/the sentence because of a given number of syllables, the rhythm and accompanying stress etc)

I'm simply assuming it's a matter of whether or not there's a vowel at the end of the word (love - as opposed to it)

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Originally Posted by Balkenende

Thanks for the answers so far.

Part of the sentence is 'love'd have ended long ago'. (would have ended)
(I cannot simply rearrange words/the sentence because of a given number of syllables, the rhythm and accompanying stress etc)

I'm simply assuming it's a matter of whether or not there's a vowel at the end of the word (love - as opposed to it)

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Sorry, but I would not understand in your example that "love'd" = "love would".

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Originally Posted by billmcd

Sorry, but I would not understand in your example that "love'd" = "love would".

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I would understand it. Generally, it would be pronounced as "love id iv". No stress on the "would" or "have".

Thinking about your sentence, instead of 'love'd have" can you use "love would've"? Perhaps you need the stress on the "have" for your meter.

But to answer your question, I agree with Barb_D. It's two syllables - luvvid.

I would pronounce "Lov'd have ended long ago" with "Lov'd" as one syllable.

I say and write "It'd" but you're right, it has two syllables.

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Originally Posted by emsr2d2

I would pronounce "Lov'd have ended long ago" with "Lov'd" as one syllable.

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I don't think I'd understand that. Would you also pronounce 'Clive'd' in 'Clive'd have done that' as one syllable?

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Originally Posted by 5jj

I don't think I'd understand that. Would you also pronounce 'Clive'd' in 'Clive'd have done that' as one syllable?

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Yup! Only when speaking very informally, casually and really not taking care of my pronunciation and I really wouldn't say it to a non-native speaker and expect them to understand.

My mate Cathy'd have done that if she'd had time. (That's not how I would write it, but "Cathy'd" would only have two syllables.)

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Originally Posted by emsr2d2

My mate Cathy'd done that if she'd had time. (That's not how I would write it, but "Cathy'd" would only have two syllables.)

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Wouldn't that be, "My mate Cathy'd've done that"?

In any case, 'Cathy', ending in a vowel, is different from 'love' and 'Clive;, which end in a consonant.