how to distinguish between /dz/ and /z/

[enydia]

Hello, Teachers.

How to distinguish between /dz/ and /z/? While listening and speaking, I always confuse them.

Here are some examples:
sides/size
roads/rose
beds/bez
sands/sans
bands/bans

In fact, I have been practicing for some days but have had very little sucess.

Enydia -_-!

[Anglika]

/dz/ has a hard sound whereas /z/ has a soft sound.

When saying /dz/, the tip of the tongue presses against the roof of the mouth behind the teeth and is pulled off sharply, allowing a slightly explosive sound.

/z/ - the tip of the tongue is a slight "v" shape, allowing air to escape though it when put against the roof of the mouth.

[enydia]

/dz/ has a hard sound whereas /z/ has a soft sound.

When saying /dz/, the tip of the tongue presses against the roof of the mouth behind the teeth and is pulled off sharply, allowing a slightly explosive sound.

/z/ - the tip of the tongue is a slight "v" shape, allowing air to escape though it when put against the roof of the mouth.

Thank you, Anglika.

I found they were nearly the same even while listening to some native-speakers. Are they very different to a native-speaker's ears?

[Anglika]

They are identifiably different when spoken properly. However, often they are softened or mumbled so that they can sound similar.

[enydia]

They are identifiably different when spoken properly. However, often they are softened or mumbled so that they can sound similar.

A shame-making question:
If I take a speaking test, will a native-speaking examiner degrade me from A to B just because I mistake /dz/ for /z/?

[BobK]

...
Here are some examples:
sides/size
roads/rose
beds/bez
sands/sans ()
bands/bans

...

I've never heard of a 'bez' (although I've heard that syllable, in words like "embezzle"). Perhaps the pair you meant was "beads/bees".

The word 'sans' was OK for Shakespeare in the meaning 'without' - but not pronounced in the French way; it was /sænz/; and it occurs in font-names such as 'MS Sans' (more generally, 'sans serif' - which is pronounced in the same [Anglo-Saxon] way by typesetters, printers and editors, although it may recently have been frenchified by the popularity of desktop publishing.

And, to answer your more recent question, he'd be very unlikely to degrade you, though he might - I suppose - downgrade you ( - if the confusion of the two phonemes caused a problem of communication). It would probably depend on how he was feeling. In any case, it wouldn't be as dramatic as from A to B - if this slight flaw in your accent was added to others, and to other problems (to do with grammar, vocabulary, etc...), it might possibly make a difference that could take you 'over the borderline' from a low A to a high B; but that one problem alone couldn't make such a big difference. (Warning: I've had no contact with exams like this; I'm only saying what I would see as reasonable.)

b

[Raymott]

A shame-making question:
If I take a speaking test, will a native-speaking examiner degrade me from A to B just because I mistake /dz/ for /z/?

Do you mean a listening test?
In a speaking test, you will say /dz/.
I doubt you'd lose a full grade for getting one phoneme wrong.
Even if native speakers produce a muted /d/ here, the word is usually understandable from the context.

[enydia]

Do you mean a listening test? [Actually, I'm worrying about both a listening and a speaking test. -_-!]
In a speaking test, you will say /dz/.
I doubt you'd lose a full grade for getting one phoneme wrong.
Even if native speakers produce a muted /d/ here, the word is usually understandable from the context.

Thank you very much, Teachers.