"have had" vs "have been having" a headache

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Hi,

Is it possible to use 'have been having a headache'
in any situation?

Please take a look at the following exchange:

A goes to the doctor for his headache problem.
A: Dr. I have a headache.
Dr: Do you have it now?
A: Yes. It is very severe. I cannot work.
Dr: Do you have it every day?
A: Yes, I have it all the time. The whole day.
Dr: Since when do you have this problem?
A1: I have been having this problem since a year ago.
A2: I have it for a year.
Now, in A1, can A say "I have been having this headache
for a year"? Or, should he say "I have had this headache for a year"?

If the headache is not constant, but on and off, does it
make any difference in what A should say?
Such as,
A3: I have been having heaches for a year.
A4: I have had headaches for a year.
Thanks
 
Hi,

Is it possible to use 'have been having a headache'
in any situation?

Please take a look at the following exchange:

A goes to the doctor for his headache problem.
A: Dr. I have a headache. :tick:
Dr: Do you have it now? :tick:
A: Yes. It is very severe. I cannot work. :tick:
Dr: Do you have/get it every day? :tick:
A: Yes, I have it all the time. The whole day. :tick:
Dr: [Since] When did you start having/How long have you had this problem?
A1: I have been having this problem for a year [ago].
A2: I have it for a year.:cross:

Now, in A1, can A say "I have been having these headaches
for a year"? Or, should he say "I have had these headaches for a year"?
(unless it really is constant).


If the headache is not constant, but on and off, does it
make any difference in what A should say?
Such as,
A3: I have been having headaches for a year. Better than -
A4: I have had headaches for a year.
Thanks

Good try :up:

b
 
I have been having headachs for a year.

I think, in other words, it could be said as, "I have been headches for a year". Because I learned that "have been having" coincides with "have been", so there is no need to write "having", as in the case of "I have known him for 3 years" instead of "I have been knowing him for three years".

Please help me.
 
I have been having headachs for a year.

I think, in other words, it could be said as, "I have been headches for a year". Because I learned that "have been having" coincides with "have been", so there is no need to write "having", as in the case of "I have known him for 3 years" instead of "I have been knowing him for three years".

Please help me.

:down:

The state of knowing has been constant ever since they were introduced -> I have known him for 3 years. But when the action is not constant, it's right to use the present perfect progressive -> I have been seeing the same doctor for 20 years. This means that every time you see a doctor (maybe only once or twice a year) it's the same one.

So, in the headaches example it would be right to say 'I have been having these headaches [off and on] for a year'. The present perfect in contexts like this, implies constant pain: 'I've had this headache for a week now'. I'm not sure what a doctor would think if you said 'I've had these headaches for a year' (he/she might assume that the headaches weren't continuous, but saying 'I've been having...' makes it clear that they haven't been.)


b
 
:down:

The state of knowing has been constant ever since they were introduced -> I have known him for 3 years. But when the action is not constant, it's right to use the present perfect progressive -> I have been seeing the same doctor for 20 years. This means that every time you see a doctor (maybe only once or twice a year) it's the same one.

[...]
b

Bobk, I liked this explanation. I had not quite thought of it like this.

The word "knowing" came up in a conversation and I was reminded of
your explanation. Here is the conversation:

A: Does he know it?
B: He must be knowing it.

Is it correct to use "knowing" in this context? Or should B say
something like "I think he knows it."

Thanks
 
A: Does he know it?
B: He must be knowing it. :cross:

B: He must know it. :tick:
B: I think he knows it. :tick:
 
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