Can "used to" be ever used followed by a perfect infinitive?!

[man of manners]

Hi!

Can we ever use "used to" followed by a perfect infinitive [have + P.P]? Did this usage ever exist?

Thanks in advance

 

[emsr2d2]

Please give us an example sentence using that construction.

 

[man of manners]

Please give us an example sentence using that construction.

Here are many:
https://www.google.com.eg/?gws_rd=ssl#q=%22used+to+have+played+%22
[url]https://www.google.com.eg/search?q=%22used+to+have+been%22&biw=1600&bih=741&source=lnms&tbm=bks&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwimnY2_nLbOAhUCSBQKHW1jDXI4ChD8BQgMKAA
[/URL]

 

[man of manners]

None of the few examples I looked at appeared natural to me.

OK, but are you speaking on behalf of the British as a whole? I mean "Do all the British find it unnatural?

 

[man of manners]

Sorry, but I haven't had time yet to check with other sixty or more million.

I did not mean this.
OK, what is the difference between "used to" when followed by a base verb and when followed by a perfect infinitive? What is the effect this structure can have on the meaning of a sentence where it is used?

 

[emsr2d2]

None of those are natural or, indeed, grammatically correct.

 

[man of manners]

None of those are natural or, indeed, grammatically correct.

I agree they are unnatural but I assure you that they are grammatically correct. What objection do you have to those realistic examples?

 

[emsr2d2]

I'm not going to click on the links again but, if memory serves me correctly, every one should have been "used to" + bare infinitive.

 

[GoesStation]

I agree they are unnatural but I assure you that they are grammatically correct. What objection do you have to those realistic examples?

Existing on the Web is poor evidence for correctness. I've scanned a few of them. Some are clearly typos. Some are from non-native Anglophones. Some are missing a comma, as in The version I used to have, played a Jimi Hendrix lick.... This is a valid usage but is not "used to" followed by a perfect infinitive.

 

[man of manners]

Existing on the Web is poor evidence for correctness.

I have said before it depends on the people who wrote it. if you can see that an example is a typo, ignore it and I am sure you will find more correct example where "used to have + p.p" is used intentionally to produce an effect I cannot understand till now.

I've scanned a few of them. [Oh, it means that you did click on the links. ] Some are clearly typos. [You can ignore them and proceed to see other correct ones] Some are from non-native Anglophones. Some are missing a comma, as in The version I used to have, played a Jimi Hendrix lick.... This is a valid usage but is not "used to" followed by a perfect infinitive. [Yes, some of the hits you will find are irrelevant citations but you can simply ignore them like I do. ]

 

[man of manners]

You have had three native speakers, two of them teachers, who have told you the sentences they looked at were natural/incorrect. Now, unless you can post a sentence that is natural and correct, that seems to be the end of the matter.

Why are you so firm? So simply, I want to say that I believe that discussion with educated natives can solve language problems.
If you did not get my point till now, I will tell you. I had seen many examples that have "used to" followed by a perfect infinitive so I got really confused and just wondered why this usage is still in use despite the clear fact that it is not natural. That led me to think that it has a certain effect or usage I don't know so I decided to ask you. You now want to convince me that all these many and many relevant examples are wrong. I think there is a difference between "grammatically wrong" and "unacceptable because it is unnatural". Please, analyse any example to know the reason this construction is used, which I could not efficiently do but i am sure you can.

 

[GoesStation]

Please post some examples that you think are correct uses of used to followed by a perfect infinitive. I scrolled through the first dozen or so of your first link without seeing any.

 

[man of manners]

Please post some examples that you think are correct uses of used to followed by a perfect infinitive. I scrolled through the first dozen or so of your first link without seeing any.

This dozen, as you call it, has some very good examples to show my point:
https://www.google.com.eg/search?site=&source=hp&q=+"There+used+to+have+been"&btnK=بحث+Google‏

 

[Tdol]

I agree they are unnatural but I assure you that they are grammatically correct. What objection do you have to those realistic examples?

I think it is up to you to try to justify which the emperor was used to have played at the Padreim as an example of the form you are looking for. You assure us that it is grammatically correct, but it's gibberish, and gibberish on page one of Google results for me. You are wrong in your assurance, and the fact that something can be found in Google, which documents any usage, does not make it automatically correct.

 

[Raymott]

I think it's up to man of manners to choose his own sentence - the one he thinks is his best example, and post it. It shouldn't be up to us to trawl the net for examples, and ferret out the typos, and the obviously foreign sentences.

 

[man of manners]

I think it is up to you to try to justify which the emperor was used to have played at the Padreim as an example of the form you are looking for.

This example is irrelevant and I said you can ignore irrelevant citations.
By the way, I will post relevant examples to make it easy.

I think it's up to man of manners to choose his own sentence - the one he thinks is his best example, and post it. It shouldn't be up to us to trawl the net for examples, and ferret out the typos, and the obviously foreign sentences.

Yes, you are right and I will do this.