[Grammar] Difference between (at a higher risk of / at high risk of)

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Lemon

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1) people with chronic conditions including diabetes, lung disease and heart disease appear to be at higher risk of severe illness from COVID-19.

2) People with asthma may be at a higher risk of becoming very sick and dying from COVID-19

Hello, I just wonder what the difference between 'at higher risk of' and 'at a higher risk of'

On many dictionaries, almost all the examples use 'risk' without article when it is used preposition 'at' as an uncountable noun like




  • They believe that the policy puts the country at risk.
  • people who are at risk of developing heart disease

But, I've found that risk is used often as a countable with preposition 'at' like


  • healthcare workers were also at a risk of developing a substance abuse issue
  • The U.N.'s Robert Piper says millions of people in the Sahel region are still at a risk of food insecurity.


I know risk can be countable and uncountable but I am confused when it can be countable and uncountable.
In this case, as dictionaries say, when the word, 'risk' is uncountable when it is used with the preposition 'at'


  • The program is designed for students who are at risk for/of failure. (merriam-webster learner's dictionary)
  • Their children are also at high risk of developing the disease.(longman)
  • That would mean putting other children at risk.(longman)
  • The officerssaidinnocentpeople’s lives had been put at risk.





But on many news outlets such as NPR, they write like "~are at a higher/greater risk of"

When can I use 'risk' as uncountable exactly? and why news media write like "at a risk of~" (with as a countable although there is a prepostion 'at')


Would you let me know what the difference is.
 
I've found that risk is used often as a countable with preposition 'at' like


  • healthcare workers were also at a risk of developing a substance abuse issue
  • The U.N.'s Robert Piper says millions of people in the Sahel region are still at a risk of food insecurity.

The indefinite article is wrong in both those examples.
 
The reason that I didn't quote or mention the sentence with "at a higher risk" is because that is natural and correct. The use of the comparative "higher" shows that more than one risk was under consideration and one of the higher risks is being mentioned, leading to the indefinite article. The Ngram teechar linked to is specifically for "at higher risk" and "at a higher risk".

In "at risk", the article is wrong.
 
The reason that I didn't quote or mention the sentence with "at a higher risk" is because that is natural and correct. The use of the comparative "higher" shows that more than one risk was under consideration and one of the higher risks is being mentioned, leading to the indefinite article. The Ngram teechar linked to is specifically for "at higher risk" and "at a higher risk".

In "at risk", the article is wrong.


Thank you for the your explanation :) so when "when 'at risk' is with an adjective such as 'higher/greater , etc' , I can put the indefinite article in the phrase, is it right?
e.g. People from ethnic minorities are at a higher risk of dying from coronavirus according to Public Health England. (the Guardian)

and also, I don't need to use the indefinite article as well? e.g. it is unclear why people who are obese are at higher risk of severe illness (the Guardian)

Then what is the difference with and without the article in both sentences??


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Plus, risk can be uncountable and countable depending on context but just wonder when I can use it as uncountable.
 
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