[Grammar] Gerund Phrase or Participial Phrase?

[virus99]

Hi forum!

This time I have got a tough one for you:


I was reading through The Compound Subject section of my grammar book when I came to the following sentence:

Being submissive is not necessarily naive.

Being submissive is stated (in book 1) as a Participial Phrase.



Another Grammar book says:

"Failing the exam was a major disappointment to him, to me and to Eva."

Failing the exam is stated (in book 2) as a Gerund Phrase.



On the internet now following info:

A participial phrase commonly functions as an adjective.

Thus, book 1 must be wrong because I can replace the compound subject with "it" and therefore "it" is a noun, not an adjective.

Please help me out here! :crazyeye:

Thank you!!!

 

[MikeNewYork]

Hi forum!

This time I have got a tough one for you:


I was reading through The Compound Subject section of my grammar book when I came to the following sentence:

Being submissive is not necessarily naive.

Being submissive is stated (in book 1) as a Participial Phrase.



Another Grammar book says:

"Failing the exam was a major disappointment to him, to me and to Eva."

Failing the exam is stated (in book 2) as a Gerund Phrase.



On the internet now following info:

A participial phrase commonly functions as an adjective.

Thus, book 1 must be wrong because I can replace the compound subject with "it" and therefore "it" is a noun, not an adjective.

Please help me out here! :crazyeye:

Thank you!!!

This a common error. I agree with your analysis. Both of your examples begin with gerund phrases that act as nouns.