[Grammar] He has had headaches in the past few days.

[NAL123]

What is the difference between:

1) He has been having headaches for the past ten days.

2) He has had headaches in the past few days.

Is the main verb "have" of sentences (1) and (2) a stative verb?

 

[teechar]

What is the difference between:
1) He has been having headaches for the past ten days.
2) He has had headaches in the past few days.

- The first has "ten days" while the second has "few days".
- If at the time of speaking the headaches have stopped, then the second is more appropriate.

Is the main verb "have" of sentences (1) and (2) a stative verb?

Stative verbs can sometimes work in continuous tenses.

 

[emsr2d2]

In the context you've given, "have" means "experience" or "suffer". It's not the same as the possessive "have", which isn't often used in the continuous in most variants of English.

 

[NAL123]

In the context you've given, "have" means "experience" or "suffer". It's not the same as the possessive "have", which isn't often used in the continuous in most variants of English.

The reason for the confusion is I think we don't usually say:

I have been having a headache for the past 10 days

Instead we just say:

I have had a headache for the past 10 days

In other words, the main verb "have" here seems to be stative, and not dynamic.

 

[emsr2d2]

The use of the continuous expresses repeated headaches, hence "I've been having headaches for the last ten days". We wouldn't say "I've been having a headache".

 

[NAL123]

The use of the continuous expresses repeated headaches, hence "I've been having headaches for the last ten days". We wouldn't say "I've been having a headache".

But the non-continuous form expresses repeated headaches too, doesn't it?

He has had headaches in the past few days.