[Grammar] I mean to do sth vs I am meaning to do sth

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PAPPAS

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Hi everyone!
I've been racking my brains to explain why the following sentence is wrong : " I am meaning to finish my homework tonight" I do believe it should be " I mean to finish my homework tonight" but I can hardly explain why. Any help??
 
The simple explanation is that we use the present continuous far less often (in most variants of English) than some people and grammar books would have you believe.
 
I suppose it is correct to say, " I was meaning to tell you.." or " I have been meaning to write for ages but I was so busy studying for my exams".

Evidently, the verb "mean" in the aforementioned sentences can be used in progressive tenses.

What about " I am meaning to finish my homework tonight" ?

Why can't the verb "mean" be used in a progressive tense such as ithe sentence above??

I would really appreciate more details on this.
 
"I am meaning to finish my homework tonight" is grammatically correct, but is not commonly used in most varieties and dialects of English.

The present progressive tense is more often used in Indian English.
 
Why use the continuous tense when you can use the simple present tense to mean the same thing?
Same thing with using the past perfect tense - why use it when you can use the simple past tense?
 
Suppose a student sits for an exam and has to answer a multuple choice question like this:

I ................to finish the final details tonight.
a. am going to mean
b. will mean
c. am meaning
d. mean
It goes without saying that the right choice is D.
Why can't we choose C, though??
In other words why can't we use "mean" in a present progressive tense the same way as we can use "mean"
in other progressive tenses such as '' I was meaning to tell you,... or I have been meaning to do sth.....
 
It's a question of usage. We just don't tend to say it that way about present/future situations.
 
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