It's been a while since we’ve had sweets.

[Maybo]

I'm watching a show called Delicious in Dungeon. A group of adventurers killed a monster and then one of the members started preparing a meal.

Senshi: The dessert is ready now too.
Laios: It's been a while since we’ve had sweets.

Why did Laios say "we've had" and not "we had"?

 

[Tarheel]

I don't think Laios considered "we had" as a possibility.

 

[emsr2d2]

The only person who can answer that confidently is Laios. Both "we've had" and "we had" are possible. I'd use "we've had".

 

[Maybo]

Why is "we've had"? When we use "since", aren't we use exact time? For example, since 1992/since three months ago?


Is it because Laois couldn’t remember the exact time so he said “have had”?

 

[Tarheel]

It's certainly what I would say. For example, I might say, "It's been some time since I've had any brownies."

 

[Tarheel]

Why is IT "we've had"? When we use "since", DON'T we use exact time? For example, since 1992/since three months ago?


Is it because Laois couldn’t remember the exact time so he said “have had”?

I didn't know about that rule. People can use "since" without referring to an exact time, and they often do.

 

[Maybo]

When you say "since I've had any brownies", what does that mean?

When I saw "I've had any brownies", it sounds to me "you have had brownies for a period of time". Is that right?

 

[Tarheel]

When you say "since I've had any brownies", what does that mean?

It doesn't mean anything by itself. The person is saying it has been some indefinite time since he last had the pleasure of eating some brownies.

 

[Tarheel]

When I saw "I've had any brownies", it sounds to me "you have had brownies for a period of time". Is that right?

No. I'm afraid that doesn't make any sense. In fact, the sentence only makes sense as a whole sentence. It drains the meaning out of it when you take it apart.

 

[tedmc]

When you say "since I've had any brownies", what does that mean?

When I saw "I've had any brownies", it sounds to me "you have had brownies for a period of time". Is that right?

I know where you are coming from. Logically "since" should go with "a point in time in the past", as in the specific time the speaker last had sweets/brownies, i.e. the simple past tense. Apparently, both the simple past and the present perfect are grammatically acceptable, which I, too, find it odd.

 

[Maybo]

The person is saying it has been some indefinite time since he last had the pleasure of eating some brownies.

That means “you haven’t had brownies for a period of time”.

But your sentence is “since I've had any brownies", which sounds that you have been having brownies, not “you haven’t had brownies for a period of time”.

I’m wondering if the present perfect tense you use in “you haven’t had brownies for a period of time” have the same meaning as the following:

I’ve seen a lion before.
Have you been to Japan?
Yes, I’ve been to Japan.

The above emphasise experiences. Have I understood correctly?

 

[Tarheel]

I've already explained that that phrase makes no sense by itself.

It's a totally unremarkable sentence. There's nothing odd about it at all. A similar sentence would be: It's been a long time since I've seen my friend.

Regarding your examples, you are probably right. (I haven't had my coffee yet.)

 

[Maybo]

It's a totally unremarkable sentence.

But it's hard for me to understand.

For example, Since 1980, John has worked in ABC Company.

That means starting from 1980, John has worked up until now.

It's been a long time since I've seen my friend.

I understood this example means I haven't seen my friend for a long time. However, based on the logic of "since 1980", I can't understood the use of the present perfect of the above example, which sounds to me that starting from some point of time, I have seen my friend up until now.

 

[Tarheel]

If you want to believe that, I can't stop you.

 

[dunchee]

For example, I might say, "It's been some time since I've had any brownies."

I’m wondering if the present perfect tense you use in ...(*1) have the same meaning as the following:

I’ve seen a lion before.
Have you been to Japan?
Yes, I’ve been to Japan.

The above emphasise experiences. Have I understood correctly?

You've got it. Compare:

• I’ve seen a lion... -- this part doesn't mean you've been seeing a lion from some time in the past until now.
• ... I've had any brownies -- same as above.
• You've got it -- same as above.

However, based on the logic of "since 1980", I can't understood the use of the present perfect of the above example, which sounds to me that starting from some point of time, I have seen my friend up until now.

It does take time to get used to it.

(*1) You changed Tarheel's sentence, so I deleted it to not complicate things.

 

[Maybo]

You've got it. Compare:

• I’ve seen a lion... -- this part doesn't mean you've been seeing a lion from some time in the past until now.
• ... I've had any brownies -- same as above.
• You've got it -- same as above.

It does take time to get used to it.

(*1) You changed Tarheel's sentence, so I deleted it to not complicate things.

“… since I’ve had a brownies” means 曾經 have brownies. Have I understood it correctly?

 

[Tarheel]

“… since I’ve had ANY brownies” means 曾經 have brownies. Have I understood it correctly?

I don't know Chinese, so I can't answer your question. However, please note the change to the wording.

I would probably say: "Do I have that right?"

(When I need help explaining things it makes me feel inadequate. )

 

[Maybo]

*1) You changed Tarheel's sentence, so I deleted it to not complicate things.

That should be “since I've had any brownies". I copied the wrong sentence.

 

[Maybo]

(When I need help explaining things it makes me feel inadequate. )

It's not that your explaining inadequate. You and I process English sentences differently.

 

[Tarheel]

It's not that your explaining IS inadequate. You and I process English sentences differently.

I think "explaining" (used as a noun) is a new word.

I don't usually think in terms of grammar rules.

Native speakers understand the language implicitly. ESL learners understand the language explicitly. That's a meaningful difference.

Grammarians get their rules from the way people speak the language. It's not the other way around.