I've <taught> <been teaching> English for 10 years. (Is the action finished in either of these?)

[Michaelll]

Does either of these (in each pair) indicate whether the action is finished or not (= the action is still going on)?

1a. He's worked here for ten years.
2a. He's been working here for ten years.

1b. I've taught English for ten years.
2b. I've been teaching English for ten years.

1c. She's gone to his grave every weekend for ten years.
2c. She's been going to his grave every weekend for ten years.

1d. I've studied French for ten years.
2d. I've been studying French for ten years.

 

[5jj]

Not without more context.

 

[tedmc]

The first of each pair implies the action may have stopped while the second implies the action is on-going.

 

[5jj]

The first of each pair implies the action may have stopped.

Not without more context.

 

[Michaelll]

Not without more context.

Do I get that right that none of those (by itself = without more context) indicate whether the action is finished or not?
For example, "I've studied French for ten years" can mean that 'I' still study French to the same extent that "I've been studying French for ten years" can mean that I've stopped studying (and the other way around). Is that correct?

 

[Barque]

You asked this same question, with different examples, a few weeks ago.

The Center <has run> <has been running> successfully for many years.

These are sentences from Martin Hewings' famous grammar book, Advanced Grammar in Use. These are from Unit 6, exercise 1, 2. He claims that both the present perfect and the present perfect continuous are possible in all of these sentences. Is it true? Are the present perfect options also...

www.usingenglish.com

 

[Michaelll]

You asked this same question, with different examples, a few weeks ago.

Yes, I remember. I just wanted to get things sorted out for sure.

 

[5jj]

Enough is enough.

Thread locked.