saw/has seen/today

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Maybo

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1. I saw him today.
2. I have seen him today.

Are the above sentences both accepted?
 
Are the above sentences both [STRIKE]accepted?[/STRIKE] acceptable?
Both are possible, but the first is much more likely.
 
Both are possible, but the first is much more likely.
When I say "I have seen him this morning", does that imply that this morning hasn't ended?
If it's correct, can I apply this rule to #2?
 
No. It's not about the morning being not finished. Think of other uses of the present perfect.
 
3. I saw him this morning.
4. I have seen him this morning.

It seems like both sentences mean I saw him at certain point of time today.
When I use #4, does it emphasize the action has been done?
 
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You can imply (hint at) something, or you can come right out and say it.
 
When you say somebody is implying something you are saying they are not saying it directly.
 
It does to me.

How about "I have seen him today"? Does it indicate anything?

For example:
A: Where is John?
B: I don't know. But I saw him today/I have seen him today.
 
Imagine a hospital ward. One doctor is holding a list of patients and talking to another doctor.

Doctor A: So which patients have you seen today?
Doctor B: I've seen him today. I've also seen her, and those two.

The action (see) took place in the recent past but is still relevant.

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The "unfinished-today" scenario is also possible.
Doctor A: So which patients have you seen so far today?
Doctor B: I've seen him today. I've also seen her, and those two.
 
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