[Grammar] Tense that follows a fronting sentence using passive verb

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DANAU

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Hi,

Comparing the two sentences below, I find the first sentence that uses simple past to sound more natural.
If it is true that the first sentence is correct, can you please share with me the rule behind this.
There is no time marker in the first sentence, so is there any reason why simple past is preferred?
My understanding is that simple past is strictly applicable to a finished action with a time marker like yesterday, last year, 2 months ago, etc.

Frustrated by the non-responsiveness of the call center, he "decided" to escalate the matter.

Frustrated by the non-responsiveness of the call center, he "has decided" to escalate the matter.
 
I think you have a serious misunderstanding, DANAU.

The language forms we choose depend on what we mean. The difference here is tense (past versus present) and aspect (simple versus perfect). The first sentence uses past simple and the second uses present perfect. Both sentences are grammatical, but they mean different things. You need to learn the different ways that these are used, and how they express meaning. It's not a matter of naturalness.

You don't have to use a past time marker in order to use the past simple.

Did you write these sentences yourself? If not, tell us which one you saw and where you saw it, giving us as much context as you can. Then we'll tell you why the writer chose that particular tense/aspect.
 
deleting unnecessary quote

Hi jutfrank,

I came out these sentences myself because I want to know if there is a certain fix rule such as subjunctive verb whereby the base form of the verb
is always used following phrases such as " He insisted that..", " It was suggested that..", etc.

My thought was that all the action verbs that follow after the passive voice fronting will be simple past tense.
Below are some further examples which I can think of.

- Annoyed by her sister, she left the house.
- Hurt by their remarks, he shouted back.
- Propelled by the stimulus package, the economy recovered. (for this sentence, it seems that "has recovered" can fit too)

Yes, I am still rather confused with the form of sentence. Appreciate you can share with more more.
 
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My thought was that all the action verbs that follow after the passive voice fronting will be simple past tense.

No, not necessarily. Any association that there may be is non-grammatical. You will find lots of examples where the past simple does follow fronted past participle phrases, but that's because fronting with that kind of phrase is a common feature of narrative writing, which largely tends to be about events in past time, therefore requiring the past tense.
 
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1. Frustrated by the non-responsiveness of the call center, he "decided" to escalate the matter.

2. Frustrated by the non-responsiveness of the call center, he "has decided" to escalate the matter.

Both sentences are possible with the right context.
1 happened in the past, is over and done with.
2 happened in the past which has led/linked to action up to the present.
 
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Hi tedmc,

On the subjunctive form, I have read from sources that do use "that" to illustrate subjunctive verb in their teaching materials.
Below are examples with and without "that" given by the website when explaining about subjunctive form.

- I suggested that he face up to the bully. (with that)
- I suggest you take a rain coat with you. (without that)
 
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OK, you are right about "that" not making any difference to the subjunctive form of a sentence. I was mistaken.
 
What does this question have to do with the subjunctive?
 
What does this question have to do with the subjunctive?

Hi Jutfrank,

As subjunctive uses the base and plural form of a verb after phrases such as "he insisted that we remove.." and " it was suggested that we increase..",
so I was using it as an illustration to see if there is similar rule for fronted sentence that simple past tense will always be the tense to use for the second part of the sentence.
 
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