Why did the writer of the article use “waft”?

Status
Not open for further replies.

rezaaa

Junior Member
Joined
Sep 4, 2020
Member Type
Student or Learner
Native Language
Persian
Home Country
Iran
Current Location
Iran
Last edited:
Is he letting balls in the goal and then waving at them?
 
My guess would be that waft is used figuratively here to represent the tiny breeze that his dismissive gesture would create. Substitution of the effect for the cause is a figure of speech that goes back to ancient Greek, but I can't recall the Greek word for it. It is a bit like "I dropped the stupid hammer on my toe." It isn't the hammer that is stupid.
 
As far as I can tell, every time a goal is scored against Man Utd (and at the moment that's happening a lot!), Ronaldo does a sort of dismissive waft with this hand in the air, potentially directed at Solskjær. If someone did that to me, I would take it as a way of something like "Pfft. Again. This is rubbish" and the suggestion would be that it was somehow my fault.

Tarheel, he (Ronaldo) isn't letting in goals. He's not a goalkeeper - he's a striker (a forward).
 
Last edited:
Look at the definition given by Cambridge, paying attention to the part I've bolded in brackets: to (cause to) move gently through the air

Ronaldo, as the 'causer' of the action, was dismissively waving his hand as you would if you were trying to get a bad smell to go away.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top