I have ever heard of Canada.

[christopher mark kohler]

I'm new OK? Good.

I am telling a student that "I have ever heard of X." is simply a non-existent english sentence. Mabye it was in shakespears days. She thinks it means I have heard of Canada 1 time ("ever" meaning once). Her Chinese English University teachers say i am wrong and the meaning of "ever" is "once". Websters online definition #1 says 1. At any time; at any period or point of time (www.hyperdictionary.com). I think this definition is misleading but hey, if i could re-write websters i guess I wouldn't be here.

The writes of this website seem to believe otherwise as indicated by the quiz at the link below, specifically question #9.
http://www.usingenglish.com/quizzes/290.html

[Tdol]

I am afraid that I don't get your point- the answer showing for that question is incorrect, so we're in agreement on this: Answer Sheet: Present Perfect - Teacher Handouts - UsingEnglish.com . Could it be another question somewhere? If it is and you remember, please let me know so that I can change it. Thanks

[christopher mark kohler]

OK thanks. Let me try again. A student said to me on qq chat, like msn, the following:

I have ever heard of Canada.

I said to her that she can not use that sentence; that it has no meaning.

Lets start there, simply. Am I wrong for saying this?

Thanks
CK

[Anglika]

No and yes.

No, you are not wrong if the intended meaning is "I have not heard of Canada" - which is the most likely.

Yes - if it was the usage of ever as an intensive as in "Am I ever happy to see you"- most unlikely in the context.

[2006]

OK thanks. Let me try again. A student said to me on qq chat, like msn, the following:

I have ever heard of Canada.
But I have heard many Chinese people use "ever" like that when they want to mean, in this example, 'I have heard of Canada.' (It seems to be a flaw in the teaching of the word "ever" in China.)

I said to her that she can not use that sentence; that it has no meaning. It certainly has no clear meaning and it is not correct English.

Lets start there, simply. Am I wrong for saying this? No, you are not wrong

Thanks
CK

You can ask the question, 'Have you ever heard of Canada?'
And if you had not previously heard of Canada, you would say 'I have never heard of Canada.'

But if you had heard a lot about Canada, you can answer the above question with 'Have I ever heard of Canada!' That last sentence may sound like a question as it has question grammar, but it actually is an emphatic yes answer. It is similar to saying 'Am I ever hungry!', which means I am really hungry.

[Raymott]

OK thanks. Let me try again. A student said to me on qq chat, like msn, the following:

I have ever heard of Canada.

I said to her that she can not use that sentence; that it has no meaning.

Lets start there, simply. Am I wrong for saying this?

Thanks
CK

In case you need further evidence for the university professors:
You are not wrong.
Perhaps locally it means this. And if everyone in China uses it this way, then that's what it means in China. But it is not Standard English. It's an invention from within China, and would not be understood outside of China.

[Tdol]

Do you know what could be behind this? Are they teaching them forms like 'Am I ever hungry' or 'as was and ever shall be'?

PS I agree that the sentence is pretty meaningless.