[Grammar] the difference between she is my friend and she is one of my friends

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mrbin

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Dear English teachers
What is the difference between she is my friend and she is one of my friends?
regards
 
What is the difference between she is my friend and she is one of my friends?

mrbin.
Assuming that you have several friends, if she is "your friend" then she is also "one of your friends".

not a teacher
 
Dear English teachers
What is the difference between she is my friend and she is one of my friends?
regards

She is my friend. You are speaking exclusively/only about one person. You might or might not have other friends.

She is one of my friends. You are speaking about one of other friends you have.
 
She is my friend. You are speaking exclusively/only about one person. You might or might not have other friends.

She is one of my friends. You are speaking about one of other friends you have.
thanks alot
 
I didn't follow the links, and in case anyone else just looks at your list and thinks they are all okay, I need to say "A friend of mine's" is NOT okay. There is no such thing as "mine's" to indicated possession.

EDIT: Please see Bob's post to show how this is an incorrect statement. I'd delete, but it's been quoted.
 
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I didn't follow the links, and in case anyone else just looks at your list and thinks they are all okay, I need to say "A friend of mine's" is NOT okay. There is no such thing as "mine's" to indicated possession.

Unless the context is different:

Mine is clearly bigger.
Mine's clearly bigger.


If I am not mistaken, of course.
 
Unless the context is different:

Mine is clearly bigger.
Mine's clearly bigger.


If I am not mistaken, of course.

"Mine + s" is not indicative of possession in the same way that "John + s" is. "Mine's" is simply short for "Mine is".

We don't use "apostrophe + s" to indicate possession in the first person singular.

Belonging to John = John's
Belonging to Sarah = Sarah's
Belonging to my brother = my brother's

Belonging to me = my
 
"Mine + s" is not indicative of possession in the same way that "John + s" is. "Mine's" is simply short for "Mine is".

We don't use "apostrophe + s" to indicate possession in the first person singular.

...

That so? All this time I've been saying things like: 'My hair is short, but a friend of mine's is long'. I knew it was inelegant, but I've never thought of it as wrong... Who'da thunk it?

b
 
That so? All this time I've been saying things like: 'My hair is short, but a friend of mine's is long'. I knew it was inelegant, but I've never thought of it as wrong... Who'da thunk it?

b

I should have made it clear that I was referring to the sentence "Mine's clearly bigger"! Your sentence has "mine's" followed by "is" and is used in a different context.
 
I know I changed the context, but it seemed to me that you were advancing a general rule ('We don't use "apostrophe + s" to indicate possession in the first person singular') - I questioned that (in case a student thought it was true in all contexts) ;-)

b
 
I know I changed the context, but it seemed to me that you were advancing a general rule ('We don't use "apostrophe + s" to indicate possession in the first person singular') - I questioned that (in case a student thought it was true in all contexts) ;-)

b

You're right - my wording was atrocious in that post! Apologies. It should have said "We don't use etc etc in that way to indicate possession..."

Thanks for pointing it out. :)
 
That so? All this time I've been saying things like: 'My hair is short, but a friend of mine's is long'. I knew it was inelegant, but I've never thought of it as wrong... Who'da thunk it?

b

You are right and my post was wrong.

Thanks for providing a good counter-example to my bald statement.
 
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