it was the right thing to do/to have done

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Dominik92

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Hello all :)

I got a following context and I am not sure whether...

"My right knee has been bothering me for a little while. I hoped it would go away, but after an examination and discussion with my team, I decided to have arthroscopic surgery in Switzerland yesterday.
After the procedure, the doctors confirmed that it was the right thing to have done and are very confident of a full recovery."

Is this correct? If it was up to me I would use "it was the right thing to do" instead. What does "to have done" imply here, if it is correct though? I am suspicious it my not be 100% grammatically correct as a similar structure appeared to be incorrect in one of the older threads I started here - https://www.usingenglish.com/forum/threads/i-was-really-stupid-to-follow-to-have-followed-my-mother´s-advice.239711/

I now see Piscean's posts disappeared/were deleted from the old thread so I can only provide you with his opinion by rewritting it -

Most native speakers imply not to worry about technicalities in a sentence such as yours. We have a similar situation with:

1. I would like to have gone.
2. I would have liked to go.
3. I would have liked to have gone.

In the first, the speaker expresses present regret about something they did not do in the past.
In the second, the speaker reports a past regret about something they were unable to do.
In the third, the speaker reports a past regret about something that did not do at an earlier past time.

However, many speakers use the third with the same meaning of the second. This "mistake" is very commonm and very few but pedants are bothered by it.
"To have followed is, I suppose, technically wrong. As with my example above few people will be bothered by it."

Is "it was the right decision to have done/to do" similar to the "mistake" made here - I was really stupid to have followed to follow my mother's advice." as Parser (and Piscean - see above) mentions in his post 4 there?
 
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TheParser's advice in that other thread is sound.
 
1. It was the right thing to have done.
2, It was the right thing to do.

The action (to do the right thing) was taken in No. 1 but not necessarily so in No. 2.
 
1. It was the right thing to have done.
2, It was the right thing to do.

The action (to do the right thing) was taken in No. 1 but not necessarily so in No. 2.
Context makes it clear that in both sentences the action was taken.
 
So both the right decision to do and to have done are correct? Isn't "to have done" the same kind of "mistake" Piscean* describes in the quotation I posted in my original question? I am asking since I see it very similar to the "I was really stupid to follow/to have followed my mother's advice" topic. If it's not the same, what is the difference between "to do/to have done" in this particular example? Here, I would use "to do" and think of "to have done" as the same kind of "mistake" natives may make in sentences such as is the one with "I was stupid to have followed my mother's advice".

*here I am again posting Pisean's advice regarding "I was really stupid to follow/to have followed my mother's advice" issue. In his opinion "to have followed" wasn't the best choice and he considered it a mistake.
Most native speakers imply not to worry about technicalities in a sentence such as yours. We have a similar situation with:

1. I would like to have gone.
2. I would have liked to go.
3. I would have liked to have gone.

In the first, the speaker expresses present regret about something they did not do in the past.
In the second, the speaker reports a past regret about something they were unable to do.
In the third, the speaker reports a past regret about something that did not do at an earlier past time.

However, many speakers use the third with the same meaning of the second. This "mistake" is very common and very few but pedants are bothered by it.
"To have followed is, I suppose, technically wrong. As with my example above few people will be bothered by it."
 
What about these combinations? Which of the following sentences is the best? If you were to put them in order, what would the order be?

1)....the doctors confirmed that it had been the right thing to do.
2)....the doctors confirmed that it was the right thing to have done.
3)....the doctors confirmed that it was the right thing to do.

I am asking since I might have noticed one more difference here compared to the "to follow/to have followed my mother's advice" example. In the example with "the right thing to do" there is one more past reference (confirmed).
 
Is this correct? If it was up to me I would use "it was the right thing to do" instead. What does "to have done" imply here, if it is correct though?

It means that the action took place before the determination that it was right decision. The perfect aspect of have done serves to sequence two relative points in time. The operation comes first, and then the confirmation that it was the right decision comes later. If you say 'it was the right thing to do', you lose that sequencing
 
So...

1) ....the doctors confirmed that it was the right thing to do. This is acceptable but not as exact, poor style?

2) ....the doctors confirmed that it was the right thing to have done. Best way to say it? Exact, higher style?

Wouldn't it be better (if not the best) to use "....the doctors confirmed that it had been the right thing to do." rather than "...the doctors confirmed that it was the right thing to have done."?
 
1) ....the doctors confirmed that it was the right thing to do. This is acceptable but not as exact, poor style?

2) ....the doctors confirmed that it was the right thing to have done. Best way to say it? Exact, higher style?

No, it isn't to do with style. It's about meaning.

Wouldn't it be better (if not the best) to use "....the doctors confirmed that it had been the right thing to do." rather than "...the doctors confirmed that it was the right thing to have done."?

Arguably, yes. Both sequence in similar ways.
 
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I've come across this sentence on Guardian. Although it doesn't have much to do with infinitives, I think it may well work similarly.

- "Hill said she wrote a letter about the way she was informed."

Where do I see the similarity? In my opinion, the 1 sentences they have both wrong sequencing and it would be best to use either "versions" 2 or 3 - Hill sentences work the same way as the ones with the doctors, don't they?

1) Hill said she wrote a letter about the way she was informed.
1) The doctors confirmed that it was the right thing to do.

2) Hill said she wrote a letter about the way she had been informed.
2) The doctors confirmed that it was the right thing to have done.

3) Hill said she had written a letter about the way she was informed.
3) The doctors confirmed that it had been the right thing to do.
 
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