Nominative / Objective form of pronoun

[Barman]

When the pronoun comes after the verb to be, which form of the pronoun is the grammatically correct usage?

1) A: Who's there?

B: It's I/ him.

2)A: Do you think he did it?

B: I amn't sure. It might have been him/he.

 

[Charlie Bernstein]

When the pronoun comes after the verb to be, which form of the pronoun is the grammatically correct usage?

1) A: Who's there?

B: It's me.

- Grammatical but old-fashioned: "It is I."

- Conversational: "It's me."

2)A: Do you think he did it?

B: I'm not sure. It might have been him.

"It might have been he" is more strictly grammatical, but I always hear "him."

No one says amn't. Millions of people use the scandalously ungrammatical but highly useful ain't. You'll hear it in English-language songs all the time.

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[GoesStation]

Grammarians have been strangely reluctant to admit that English possesses disjunctive pronouns, despite their widespread use for centuries.

 

[Barman]

Grammarians have been strangely reluctant to admit that English possesses disjunctive pronouns, despite their widespread use for centuries.

Which form of the pronoun is applicable to formal English and informal conversation?

 

[PaulMatthews]

Which form of the pronoun is applicable to formal English and informal conversation?

Unlike French, English doesn't have disjunctive pronouns.

Just about everyone uses the accusative case: "It's only me" / "It was him", and so on.

 

[Barman]

Unlike French, English doesn't have disjunctive pronouns.

Just about everyone uses the accusative case: "It's only me" / "It was him", and so on.

Respected PaulMatthews,

You mean that in informal conversation, objective cases of the pronoun are used. But in formal English, which form is used, nominative, or objective?

 

[PaulMatthews]

Respected PaulMatthews,

You mean that in informal conversation, objective cases of the pronoun are used. But in formal English, which form is used, nominative, or objective?

I would use the accusative case in all situations.

 

[Rollercoaster1]

I would use the objective case in all situations.

'He is taller than I' in this example, 'I' isn't the objective case.

 

[PaulMatthews]

'He is taller than I' in this example, 'I' isn't the objective case.

I didn't say it was!

 

[Rollercoaster1]

I didn't say it was!

In post 7, you said you'd use accusative case in all situations.

 

[PaulMatthews]

In post 7, you said you'd use accusative case in all situations.

So what? "Me" and "him" are accusative in "It's only me" / "It was him".

The accusative case is preferable in both formal and informal situations, in my opinion.

 

[Rollercoaster1]

So what? "Me" is accusative in "It's only me".

This '...in all situations' is confusing me.

 

[PaulMatthews]

This '...in all situations' is confusing me.

If you bothered to read the question asked at #6, you'll see what I meant.

Situation= formal ~ informal.

 

[Barman]

'He is taller than I' in this example, 'I' isn't the objective case.

Actually, the case of the pronoun following than has to be determined by mentally supplying the verb.

For example:

1) He is taller than I (am). (Nominative case)

2) He knows you more than (he knows) me. ( Objective case)

 

[GoesStation]

Actually, the case of the pronoun following than has to be determined by mentally supplying the verb.

For example:

1) He is taller than I (am). (Nominative case)

2) He knows you more than (he knows) me. ( Objective case)

Native speakers nearly always use me in both sentences. English teachers used to try to change this practice, citing the invented rule that "me" can only be an object pronoun. It is in fact used as a subject pronoun in this sort of construction and thus functions as a disjunctive pronoun.

Careful speakers used to follow their teachers' misguided advice. Hardly anyone does anymore.