My questions was whether they were so fundamentally different that they shared no meaning- when they put the roof up at Wimbledon, it shares some meaning even though it is outdoors tennis,it is outdoors tennis under a roof to protect it from the weather, and shares that aspect with indoor/all-weather tennis. It is not a 0% relationship in terms of meaning.
Shared != identical which is ALL that matters for individual basic means of communication/words. If it's not identical then they're different, regardless of any other relationships or similarities. If such differences are enough to reflect a difference in meaning that affects their use, then they REALLY matter. A door and a table are both things, but would not be considered the same - that we can use the same representation for different pieces of information (homonyms), does make the language a bit tricky, but it's why linguistics is so important - so we can fully recognise and understand when, how and why the same representation is used for multiple, different peices of information, whether related or otherwise (which does not matter for the rules in general).
Relative time and space in the English language can obviously have two distinct main meanings - as a property of, or as as a setting in which, something (or other concept used as a noun) or a thing of happening can/does exist - (the latter does not involve such a property, however).
If the meaning of indoors cat/the cat is indoors is NOT identical, (e.g. the red car/the car is red), then it HAS to be different, at which point, it no longer makes ANY sense to give such different uses of such representations the SAME/IDENTICAL manner of use! It's a similar situation for the different applications of words such as
is.
Do you deny the existence of homonyms?
Do you deny the basic relationship and distinction between semantics and syntactics, since that is the REAL cause of the problems we have?
Retirement doesn't make academics' opinions worthless, so I don't get the logic behind this claim.On a point about part one of the blog, it presupposes a monolithic view of language, which is not what I have experienced.
And THAT is EXACTLY why we have problems, because without such a distinction between communication and language, that I have described, language ceases to exist - its rules and regulations no longer have any consistent context, relevance or reason to exist. Any general understanding and definition of language that does not help to define and understand its basic function/functionality has, and can have, no true relevance, use and meaning.
This is a/the problem.
Either language has additional rules governing its functionality in relation to communication and semiosis/semiotics or it doesn't - that we currently recognise it to do so, automatically limits what it must be, in relation to its purpose - or do you deny that the purpose of language is to enable greater consistency in communication, too?
This isn't rocket science - my understanding of semiosis/semiotics, communication and language is a logical outcome of recognising and understanding that everything here involves the representation of information. Or do you deny that, too?
EDIT: (To avoid double-posting)
If 'is' is not a verb, then it is not.
@OP: Do you have problems with verbs only or will you be debunking other parts of speech as well?
I'm concentrating on
things of happening because our lack of truly understanding such a distinct concept is causing some MAJOR problems in our understanding of, (especially), our
own behaviour - especially if it's treated and described with any degree of abstraction from such a basic concept. (They symptoms of this are literally EVERYWHERE around us, today.) Confusing such different concepts by their manner of use is part of the problem.
EDIT 2:
To answer the last question more completely - yes, I will. Our recognition and understanding of the different concepts that cause the manner of use we've labelled
noun and their additional properties that cause
adjectives are also problematic - but such problems are directly related to, and even caused by, those I'm dealing with here.
EDIT 3:
If our current understanding of language, or even just English, does not allow us to recognise some concepts that exist, and therefore the individual basic means of communication/words to exist that belong to such concepts, THAT THE LANGUAGE ALREADY HAS, then it's our understanding that is wrong!