She's gone to Paris for a week.

[Alice Chu]

Is the sentence below incorrect because “gone” has no duration?
B: She's gone to Paris for a week.

The sentence comes from the following information.
https://learnenglish.britishcouncil.org/english-grammar-reference/present-perfect
We use have/has been when someone has gone to a place and returned:
A: Where have you been?
B: I've just been out to the supermarket.
But when someone has not returned, we use have/has gone:
A: Where's Maria? I haven't seen her for weeks.
B: She's gone to Paris for a week. She'll be back tomorrow.

 

[teechar]

Is the sentence below incorrect

The sentence is fine.

because “gone” has no duration?

I don't know what that means.

 

[Alice Chu]

I don’t think the sentence is correct because she can’t keep going to Paris for a week. She went to Paris a week ago and she is still there. She has been in Paris for a week. Am I right?

 

[emsr2d2]

"She's gone to Paris for a week" means that she has already left and gone to Paris and her holiday in Paris will be of one week's duration. It can't mean anything else. If it helps, read it as "She's gone to Paris for a one-week holiday/vacation". If we know when she left, we also know when she's due back. If we don't know when she left, we can't work out her return date.