[Grammar] When I got home, Mary was doing her homework.

[kadioguy]

[My sentences]

a. When I got home, Mary was doing her homework.

b. When I got home, Mary had been doing her homework.
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Do both work?

A friend told me:

Was doing = she was doing it at the moment you got home.

Had been doing = she had been doing her homework before you got home. (She might have stopped doing it before you got home, or she might still be doing it when you got home.)

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I agree with them. However, I would also like to hear your opinions.

(Updated)

I now think that "Had been doing" implies that she was still doing it when you got home.

What do you think?

 

[5jj]

Was doing = she was doing it at the moment you got home.

Had been doing = she had been doing her homework before you got home. (She might have stopped doing it before you got home, or she might still be doing it when you got home.)

Yes

I now think that "Had been doing" implies that she was still doing it when you got home.

There is no way of knowing without more context.

 

[kadioguy]

[My sentences]

a. When I got home, Mary was doing her homework.

b. When I got home, Mary had been doing her homework.
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Was doing = she was doing it at the moment you got home.

Had been doing = she had been doing her homework before you got home. (She might have stopped doing it before/when you got home, or she might still be doing it when you got home.)

Is it okay to say that?

 

[kadioguy]

[My sentences]

a. When I got home, Mary was doing her homework.

b. When I got home, Mary had been doing her homework.
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Was doing = she was doing it at the moment you got home.

Had been doing = she had been doing her homework before you got home. (She might stop doing it before you got home or when you got home, or she might still be doing it when you got home.)

I think that it's clearer. What do you think?

 

[Tdol]

B) doesn't work well for me.