[Grammar] Whom/To whom do I teach?

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Whom/To whom do I teach?

I think that to get the answer of this question, we should try to write it as a normal sentence instead of interrogative one.

So I could write the declarative sentence of the above interrogative sentence as :- I teach XYZ. As there is no need of writing preposition "to", I believe that "Whom do I teach?" is ONLY right.

Similarly

Whom/To whom is the letter addressed?

The declarative sentence of the above interrogative sentence could be written as :- The letter is addressed to XYZ.

So, I believe, that "to" preposition MUST be used in the interrogative sentence. However its position may be different as follows.

1:- To whom is the letter addressed?
or
2:- Whom is the letter addressed to?
But if I remember correctly, if the preposition is separated from "whom" then whom turns into "who.....+ preposition in the last". Therefore sentence no 2 should be written as:-
3:-Who is the letter addressed to?


Please tell me upto what extent am I right.
 

jutfrank

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Yes, that's all basically right up to the last part:

But if I remember correctly, if the preposition is separated from "whom" then whom turns into "who.....+ preposition in the last". Therefore sentence no 2 should be written as:-
3:-Who is the letter addressed to?

I've never heard this rule before. It doesn't sound right to me. Whom did you hear this from?
 

GoesStation

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Yes, that's all basically right up to the last part:



I've never heard this rule before. It doesn't sound right to me. Whom did you hear this from?

It's a good descriptive rule for the way most speakers use the language, except that it should say "whom" may be replaced by "who".
 

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SoothingDave

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It's a compromise position between absolutely sitcklerism and completely abandoning the word "whom."
 
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Sir, do you mean to say that I have written all the sentences as well as their logics correctly.
Also, is the period, in the above sentence as well as this one itself correct.
 
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Dear sir, kindly have a look at the statement given by another member in one of the above posts "Whom did you hear this from".

Shouldn't it be written as "who did you hear this from" or "from whom did you hear this"?
 

emsr2d2

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[STRIKE]Sir,[/STRIKE] Please don't refer to users here as "Sir". It's overly formal and it suggests that you think we're all male. We're not.

Do you mean to say that I have written all the sentences correctly, as well as getting [STRIKE]their[/STRIKE] the [STRIKE]logics[/STRIKE] logic [STRIKE]correctly[/STRIKE]right?Also, is the period (no comma here) in the above sentence, as well as this one, [STRIKE]itself[/STRIKE] correct?

[STRIKE]Dear sir,[/STRIKE] See my comment above.

Kindly have a look at the statement given by another member in one of the above posts - "Whom did you hear this from?"

Shouldn't it be written as "Who did you hear this from?" or "From whom did you hear this?"

Please note my corrections and comments above.

Both the full stops you coloured red should have been question marks.

"From whom did you hear this?" is correct.
"Whom did you hear this from?" is correct but rarely heard.
"Who did you hear this from?" is natural and is used by the majority of native speakers. There are a few sticklers who insist on "Whom" at the beginning.
 
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I am sorry for I don't know how to use a part of the answer of a member as a quote. If I talk about your reply that I have written below -

Shouldn't it be written as "Who did you hear this from?" or "From whom did you hear this?"

Shouldn't we use period after the sentence?
Some member, in some other post, told me
Don't include sentence-ending punctuation in a quoted sentence unless it also ends the sentence in which it's quoted. I was already confused about the reply. You, please, either reply to that thread or teach me here in the thread about the use of punctuation marks in sentences including quotes.
https://www.usingenglish.com/forum/threads/261543-He-is-an-English-teacher-(English-here-defines-origin-of-the-teacher-not-the-subject)?p=1408318#post1408318
 
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Quite logical. Is there any difference in above context considering British English Grammar in its classic form?
 

emsr2d2

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I can't remember if it was you who used that phrase before but I don't know what you mean by "British English Grammar in its classic form".
 
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Here in India, for competitive exams, we have to answer the oddly formulated sentences based on the classic British English grammar.
For Example:- "Each boy and each girl has finished her work." will be considered right and "Each boy and each girl has finished their work." might not be taken as correct.

In short, the purist, more strict form of British English grammar is referred by me as classic British English grammar.

or

"Everybody should finish his homework" will be taken as correct and "Everybody should finish their homework" will be taken as wrong.
 
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You are right and I also believe that the first and foremost function of any language is to convey thoughts as effectively as possible. But here, in India, some competitive tests just evaluate your understanding of Grammar. The questions formed by them are so unnatural that anyone may have banged his (not their) head against the wall.
 

GoesStation

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Don't capitalize "grammar" unless it's part of a title. It isn't a proper noun.
 
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Thank you for pointing out these little but significant mistakes. I appreciate your help.
 

Tdol

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The vast majority of British native speakers would ask Who do I teach? nowadays. Whom still works in some circles, but to whom doesn't.
 
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