I saw that a thread had been closed on this subject.
It need not be reopened on my account, but a sample sentence was "I talked to him".
That sentence seems to me to clearly have a prepositional phrase in it. The sentence " I told him." might serve as a better example. What I told him would be the direct object, but I am not sure that it is necessary for the sentence to be complete. "him" would clearly be the indirect object. I think that this would be an example of an indirect object without a direct object -- unless you insist that the direct object is understood.
[QUOTE=Frank Antonson;784526]I saw that a thread had been closed on this subject.
It need not be reopened on my account, but a sample sentence was "I talked to him".
That sentence seems to me to clearly have a prepositional phrase in it. The sentence " I told him." might serve as a better example. What I told him would be the direct object, but I am not sure that it is necessary for the sentence to be complete. "him" would clearly be the indirect object. I think that this would be an example of an indirect object without a direct object -- unless you insist that the direct object is understood.[/QUOTE]
I don't see that there's a contradiction. Even if the DO is tacit, the sentence clearly has no DO. I told him is one sentence and I told him that is another sentence. One has a DO and the other doesn't.
I'm beginning not to understand what's being discussed.![]()
By "DO" do you mean "to"?
The measure for me in English of an indirect object is "can 'to' or 'for' be inserted."?
I talked TO him. vs I told him. In Latin and German the situation would be clarified by the use of the dative case.
No, by DO I meant Direct Object.
Latin and German are too much for an ignoramus like me.![]()
Okay. Now I understand what you meant.
I told him.
I = S
told = V
to whom? him = IO
The understood DO is wiped out of the sentence but it is still there.
I told him = SVOO
There is no SVO with O as an indirect object.
I talked to him.
I talked.
--> to him = optional --> SV (and not SVA); to him = prep. object
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Hmm... I think it all comes down to points of view.
I've got money. But it's in the bank. I haven't got it with me. It isn't here.
Same with the D.O.
In the sentence 'I talked' you will argue that something has been said, etc. I understand that. The O is understood, tacit, whatever, but it isn't in the sentence. This particular sentence has no object. The rest is a matter of speculation.
In my humble opinion.![]()
These are the clause patterns in the Quirkian denotational system:
1. SV
2. SVO
3. SVA
4. SVOA
5. SVC
6. SVOC
7. SVOO
I told him. Which of the above is this sentence? SVO? An O in SVO is a monotransitive verb. Monotransitive verbs take a direct object, as opposed to an indirect object, as one of their argument, the other being the subject.
My argument may come across as somewhat airy-fairy, but I really do not see another way to fit this sentence in the Qirkian taxonomic system for clauses.![]()
I meant a V.An O is not a verb.
Yes.Does the O in SVO stand for DO exclusively?