Please help me out

[sky3120]

I have learned that 'All of us' is All=us, 'it all' is it=us. Then, can I say that all is equal to my money in ' I lost all of my money'. I don't think all is equal to my money but the sentence structure is the same as I took it all ( all of it ) and in some particular context, I think it is possible if they already knew what the 'all' meant and all the speaker had $100. It is so confusing. Could you help me out please. Thank you in advance.

[TheParser]

Hello, Sky:

I was wondering whether the following might be helpful:

1. I lost all my money. (correct)

2. I lost all of my money (correct)

3. I lost my money all. (incorrect)

*****

4. I lost all it. (incorrect)

5. I lost all of it. (correct)

6. I lost it all. (correct)

As you probably already know, No. 3 is incorrect because "money" is a noun; No. 4 is incorrect because "it" is a pronoun.

*****

According to many usagists ("good English" advisers), in formal writing, there is no need to use "of." So I guess that

many usagists would prefer No. 1 to No. 2. But there are some usagists who would probably prefer No. 2 because it is,

I think, a so-called partitive phrase. That is, it refers to a part of something. In this case, your money. Compare:

Some of your money.
Much of your money.
All of your money.

*****

Hopefully, other people will join this discussion.

CREDIT: If you want a scholarly discussion regarding "all of," please google:

"All" in partitive phrases

Then click on the 9th result that is entitled English Syntax Carl Lee Baker. Read his pages 167 - 168; 175 - 177.

Thanks for your question. I learned a lot.

[billmcd]

Hello, Sky:

I was wondering whether the following might be helpful:

1. I lost all my money. (correct)

2. I lost all of my money (correct)

3. I lost my money all. (incorrect)

*****

4. I lost all it. (incorrect)

5. I lost all of it. (correct)

6. I lost it all. (correct)

As you probably already know, No. 3 is incorrect because "money" is a noun; No. 4 is incorrect because "it" is a pronoun.

*****

According to many usagists ("good English" advisers), in formal writing, there is no need to use "of." So I guess that

many usagists would prefer No. 1 to No. 2. But there are some usagists who would probably prefer No. 2 because it is,

I think, a so-called partitive phrase. That is, it refers to a part of something. In this case, your money. Compare:

Some of your money.
Much of your money.
All of your money.

*****

Hopefully, other people will join this discussion.

CREDIT: If you want a scholarly discussion regarding "all of," please google:

"All" in partitive phrases

Then click on the 9th result that is entitled English Syntax Carl Lee Baker. Read his pages 167 - 168; 175 - 177.

Thanks for your question. I learned a lot.

And you have contributed a lot!

[Frank Antonson]

Would it help any to add that "all" is an indefinite pronoun, which can be singular or plural?