causative form - have x get

[beachboy]

What´s the difference in terms of conceptual meaning between I´ll have the maid fix you a snack and I´ll get the maid to fix you a snack? In the second sentence, would it convey that I´ll have to convince her?

 

[Barb_D]

There's no difference to me, but since I've never lived in or visited a home with servants, I guess there may be a difference that I don't see.

In other contexts, there can be a sense of persuading compared to compelling.

Don't worry - I'll get Jim to come to the party. (I'll persuade him because I know he wants to see you as much as you want to see him.)
Don't worry -- I'll have Jim come to the party. (I am Jim's employer, perhaps, and he can help you.)

 

[BobK]

I think you're right, Barb. And the idea of persuading/compelling fits in even with the servant scenario. An enlightened employer would say 'I'll get Jeeves to bring the car round to the front' and a less enlightened person in a similar position would say 'I'll have Jeeves bring the car round to the front.'

b

 

[beachboy]

In other words, does it mean I shouldn´t usually worry too much about choosing either have or get when it comes to causative form?

 

[sarat_106]

In other words, does it mean I shouldn´t usually worry too much about choosing either have or get when it comes to causative form?

Yes. Usually there is little or no difference in meaning between have and get, unless you change the causative verb to ‘make’
I´ll make the maid fix you a snack.
I will make (=will compel or force) her