I paid 30 dollars to buy Tom’s bike.

[diamondcutter]

1. I paid Tom 30 dollars for his bike.
2. I paid 30 dollars to buy Tom’s bike.

I wrote the two sentences. Do they both make sense and have the same meaning?

 

[emsr2d2]

They're both grammatically correct and make sense. However, they don't necessarily mean the same. In both, you bought Tom's bike but in sentence 1, it's clear that you paid Tom direct. In sentence 2, you could have paid someone else.