- Joined
- Apr 28, 2016
- Member Type
- Other
- Native Language
- British English
- Home Country
- UK
- Current Location
- UK
Going by replies so far looks like I'm in the wrong, and the wording is basically stronger than I thought.
Hi there. I'll try to explain this to make things clear. I saw this on a bookmaker's site with odds beside this (Manchester [no space between ( and Manchester] Utd. to lead after 25 minutes). I took this bet, as this implied to me that if Manchester Utd. were leading after 25 minutes, I would be correct. Manchester Utd. led after [or at] 27 minutes, so I assumed I had won, but the bet was put as a loser. When I queried this, I was informed this means up to 25 minutes and is clear and can't be taken any other way. I gave them various examples as to why this bet could be taken different ways by customers, as the wording is not clear as to what they perceive this to [delete only] mean. So would I like input as to what this implies to anybody looking at this, because I feel other customers could possibly interpret this as after 25 minutes.
I understand what you are saying with certain terminology, but what I'm trying to find out if something could be interpreted wrongly by the wording not being as clear as it could be.
So you feel the wording could be better, to eliminate any misunderstandings? I agree, but when I put this to them for future customers who may read this differently as to what was meant, I was informed that you can only read this one way, which I disagreed with. Anyway was just looking for opinions from various forumites just to see if this could be misinterpreted or very clear.
Whatever you think, the bookie knows what he means and it's no good asking him for a payout if Man U don't take the lead until the 26th minute.