[Grammar] Unsure of grammer ussage.

Status
Not open for further replies.

toshim

New member
Joined
Jun 7, 2012
Member Type
Student or Learner
Native Language
English
Home Country
United States
Current Location
United States
Absence of one or both testicles, congenital or undescended is disqualifying.

Is this saying that its disqualifying to be missing one or both due to it being congenital or undescended, or does it mean missing one or both is disqualifying and congenital or undecended is just clarifying some grey areas.
 

JMurray

Key Member
Joined
Nov 17, 2010
Member Type
Interested in Language
Native Language
English
Home Country
New Zealand
Current Location
Australia
Absence of one or both testicles, congenital or undescended is disqualifying.

Is this saying that its disqualifying to be missing one or both due to it being congenital or undescended, or does it mean missing one or both is disqualifying and congenital or undecended is just clarifying some grey areas.


As I understand the sentence, it's saying that the absence of one or both testicles, whether that absence is due to a birth defect or the testicle(s) not having descended yet, is disqualifying.

I'm tempted to ask the context of this.

not a teacher
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Top