Which was her excuse to forget things easily?

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learning54

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Hi teachers,
This is for a listening/reading comprehension exercise.

Context:
The policeman whispered in Felix’s ear. Felix looked sadly at Marta. Your sister and all her family live in Australia, Marta. Who was the man in your house?
Oh dear! Marta said. I’m an old woman, you know. Seventy-two last month. I forget things very easily. In Australia, did you say?

Would this following question and answer be a suitable one?

Which was Marta’s excuse to forget things easily?
She said she was an old woman and that she was seventy-two the month before.

Thanks in advance.
 

Chicken Sandwich

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It sounds better to me if you use "what" and use for + gerund. What was Marta’s excuse for forgetting things easily?

Let's await a confirmation/response from an expert ;-)
 

billmcd

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It sounds better to me if you use "what" and use for + gerund. What was Marta’s excuse for forgetting things easily?

Let's await a confirmation/response from an expert ;-)

I don't consider myself an "expert", but I like your alternative.
 

learning54

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It sounds better to me if you use "what" and use for + gerund. What was Marta’s excuse for forgetting things easily?

Hi,
Thank you for you reply.
In many situations, although there can be a very small difference in meaning, gerunds an infinitives can be used interchangeably.
The only thing for sure that I know is that gerunds can follow a preposition and infinites can't.

What is the reason to sound better here? Is there a rule?

L.
 
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Rover_KE

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'Which was Marta's excuse?' sounds like she had a choice of excuses. There was actually only one.

'I have blue, red and yellow balloons. Which do you want?'
 

learning54

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'Which was Marta's excuse?' sounds like she had a choice of excuses. There was actually only one.

'I have blue, red and yellow balloons. Which do you want?'

Hi Rover,
Thank you for your reply. But I wasn't asking on this one. I may not have explained myself vey clearly.

My question was, 'What is the reason to sound better here? Is there a rule?'

And added:
In many situations, although there can be a very small difference in meaning, gerunds an infinitives can be used interchangeably.
The only thing for sure that I know is that gerunds can follow a preposition and infinites can't.
Is there a rule when to use one or the other?

L.
 

emsr2d2

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I'm still not sure I understand your question. The simple rule here is that the preposition which comes after "excuse" is "for" and it is followed by a gerund.

My excuse for dropping the plate is that my hands were wet.
What is your excuse for being late for work every day?
Do you have an excuse for not answering the phone when I call you?

The main problem you would have if you followed "from" with an infinitive would be that you would have "for" followed by "to" - that's two prepositions next to each other which only works in certain circumstances.
 

learning54

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I'm still not sure I understand your question. The simple rule here is that the preposition which comes after "excuse" is "for" and it is followed by a gerund.
Hi,
Thank you for your reply. Very clear, after the verb 'excuse' 'for + gerund'.
Is there a general rule when to use 'for + gerund' or 'to + verb' after a verb?
I guess not, just asking.:roll:

L.
 

emsr2d2

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Hi,
Thank you for your reply. Very clear, after the verb 'excuse' 'for + gerund'.
Is there a general rule when to use 'for + gerund' or 'to + verb' after a verb?
I guess not, just asking.:roll:

L.

I'm not sure why you need a rule for when to use "for + gerund" or "to + verb" after a verb. This whole thread has been about what to use after the noun "excuse".
 

learning54

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I'm not sure why you need a rule for when to use "for + gerund" or "to + verb" after a verb. This whole thread has been about what to use after the noun "excuse".

Hi,
Thank you for your reply.
Then, it is done. No more questions. It's crystal clear.

L.
 
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