[Grammar] Nothing to wear or....

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xoleoni97

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Lately, I've found something confusing. Such as "nothing to wear", "nothing to lose", "nothing to laugh". Aren't those sentence supposed to be passive voice? Like "nothing to be worn" etc



thanks
 
The (pro)noun modified by a to-infinitive can be the patient of it, as in 'the first thing to do', so it is correct not to use the passive voice.

Not a teacher.
 
***** NOT A TEACHER *****


I found some information that may interest you.

1. "There was a lot to do." / "There was a lot to be done."

a. One expert says that the "active and passive infinitives are sometimes [ my emphasis] interchangeable."

2. He points out, too, that they can have different meanings.

a. "There was nothing to do so we played computer games." ( = we were bored.)

b. "There was nothing to be done." ( = We can't change that.")


Credit: L.G. Alexander, Longman English Grammar (1998 edition, page 312).
 
I think the passive infinitive must be used if it is followed by 'by someone/something', but I am not a teacher.
 
Lately, I've found something confusing. Such as "nothing to wear", "nothing to lose", "nothing to laugh". Aren't those sentence supposed to be passive voice? Like "nothing to be worn" etc



thanks

There is nothing wrong with your examples (except the third needs at least one more word, such as "at").
 
Last edited:
***** NOT A TEACHER *****


I found some information that may interest you.

1. "There was a lot to do." / "There was a lot to be done."

a. One expert says that the "active and passive infinitives are sometimes [ my emphasis] interchangeable."

2. He points out, too, that they can have different meanings.

a. "There was nothing to do so we played computer games." ( = we were bored.)

b. "There was nothing to be done." ( = We can't change that.")


Credit: L.G. Alexander, Longman English Grammar (1998 edition, page 312).

What did the sentence mean in no.1?
 
'There were a lot of things to do/to be done.'

Not a teacher.
 
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