[Grammar] Affirmative agreement of verbs

[divineacclivity]

Wrong: I have seen the film and she also has.
Right: I have seen the film and she has too.
Right: I have seen the film and so has she.

Barron (a GMat preperation book) states the above.

I've always used the first sentence more frequently than the 2nd. Is it wrong? If yes, why?
Thanks in advance!

 

[5jj]

I wouldn't ay that the first was wrong, but it certainly sounds less natural to me than the other two.

Why? It just happens sometimes that we say one thing and not another.

 

[Barb_D]

Even though "she also has" sounds quite unnatural, "she has also" doesn't sound as odd (though still not as good as the other two).

 

[5jj]

Even though "she also has" sounds quite unnatural, "she has also" doesn't sound as odd (though still not as good as the other two).

Good point; that hadn't occurred to me.

 

[divineacclivity]

"I also do sketching."
Which of the following does the above mean:
1. Someone does sketching and so do I
2. I do sketching and something else too

"I do sketching also" --> does it very clearly convey the second amongst the above two sentences

Could you please suggest a link or something that can give me a fair idea on the difference between the usage of the two: also, too

 

[Barb_D]

This is one of those times when context would make everything completely clear. We don't say things using the word "also" without context. (Well, we don't say anything without context of some sort, but in particular, not this.)

Are you talking about Maria, who likes to sketch? Then there is zero ambiguity in your sentence.
Are you talking about your other talents or pastime? Then there is zero ambiguity in your sentence.

You should never encounter this sentence alone, so don't worry about whether you can tell by simply reading it alone which it means. You will never have to.