Crowned 91
Junior Member
- Joined
- Apr 20, 2014
- Member Type
- Student or Learner
- Native Language
- Italian
- Home Country
- Italy
- Current Location
- Italy
Hi!
I cannot get my head around the analysis of some English structures.
I will write some examples in order to show you my problem.
Example 1: We are crazy.
My analysis is the following: "crazy" is an adjective that refers to the subject "We"; "are" is the Present Simple of the linking verb "to be".
But what about the following sentences?
1) We are seen as crazy. Here I would apply the same kind of analysis:"crazy"=adjective which refers to the subject "we",but what about the verb "be" used to link an adjective (or noun) to the subject ? I imagine that it is used implicitly in this kind of sentence or is my interpretation utterly wrong?
2) You see us as crazy."crazy"=adjective which refers to the object us, and again I would say that the verb "to be" is used implicitly.
Here is another example with a similar structure:
1) We are cruel. "cruel"= adjective that refers to the subject"we"; "are" Present Simple of the linking verb to "be"
-We strike you as cruel. = "cruel"= adjective which refers to the subject "we" and again I would say that the verb "to be" is used implicitly.
...and here is the last one with another structure and a noun instead of an adjective.
1) They were lunatics. "lunatics"= plural noun which refers to the subject "they"; "were"= Past Simple of the linking verb "to be"
- They were written off as lunatics. "lunatics"= plural noun which refers to the subject "they"; the verb "to be" is used implicitly.
-We wrote them off as lunatics. "lunatics"= plural noun which refers to the object "them" and again the verb "to be" is used implicitly.
So, my questions are:
1) Is there anything wrong with my interpretation?
2) If my attempts are correct, could I safely say that whenever I have "subject+a form of the verb BE+ adjective ", I will also have "be seen as+
adjective" and whenever I have "subject+ a form of the verb BE+ noun", I will also have "be seen as+ noun"?
3) If so, can I apply the same kind of interpretation to other similar structures ,such as "be viewed as..."; "be written off as..."," be thought of
as..." "strike someone as..."," come across as...","be classified as..."," be defined as...", "be described as...", "be depicted as...", "be portrayed as...", "be looked upon
as...", and their active forms (view someone as.../ write someone off as.../ think of someone as...and so on)just to name a few?
I cannot get my head around the analysis of some English structures.
I will write some examples in order to show you my problem.
Example 1: We are crazy.
My analysis is the following: "crazy" is an adjective that refers to the subject "We"; "are" is the Present Simple of the linking verb "to be".
But what about the following sentences?
1) We are seen as crazy. Here I would apply the same kind of analysis:"crazy"=adjective which refers to the subject "we",but what about the verb "be" used to link an adjective (or noun) to the subject ? I imagine that it is used implicitly in this kind of sentence or is my interpretation utterly wrong?
2) You see us as crazy."crazy"=adjective which refers to the object us, and again I would say that the verb "to be" is used implicitly.
Here is another example with a similar structure:
1) We are cruel. "cruel"= adjective that refers to the subject"we"; "are" Present Simple of the linking verb to "be"
-We strike you as cruel. = "cruel"= adjective which refers to the subject "we" and again I would say that the verb "to be" is used implicitly.
...and here is the last one with another structure and a noun instead of an adjective.
1) They were lunatics. "lunatics"= plural noun which refers to the subject "they"; "were"= Past Simple of the linking verb "to be"
- They were written off as lunatics. "lunatics"= plural noun which refers to the subject "they"; the verb "to be" is used implicitly.
-We wrote them off as lunatics. "lunatics"= plural noun which refers to the object "them" and again the verb "to be" is used implicitly.
So, my questions are:
1) Is there anything wrong with my interpretation?
2) If my attempts are correct, could I safely say that whenever I have "subject+a form of the verb BE+ adjective ", I will also have "be seen as+
adjective" and whenever I have "subject+ a form of the verb BE+ noun", I will also have "be seen as+ noun"?
3) If so, can I apply the same kind of interpretation to other similar structures ,such as "be viewed as..."; "be written off as..."," be thought of
as..." "strike someone as..."," come across as...","be classified as..."," be defined as...", "be described as...", "be depicted as...", "be portrayed as...", "be looked upon
as...", and their active forms (view someone as.../ write someone off as.../ think of someone as...and so on)just to name a few?
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