because quite simply, they can't afford them

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GeneD

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They may also refuse to buy things because quite simply, they can't afford them. Written by a non-native speaker.

For some reason, the underlined part sounds awkward to me. I would probably expect it as "because they simply can't afford them". What do the native speakers say? Is that clause okay?
 
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emsr2d2

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It's fine although, in my opinion, there should be a comma before "quite simply" as well as after it.
 

Do228

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I think "because they just can't afford them" would be more common in American English.
 

Charlie Bernstein

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In the US, either way is correct and natural and means the same thing.
 

Charlie Bernstein

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PS - Your question might really be about how unadorned American English sometimes is.

I don't know whether American English is actually less ornate than British. We certainly like to believe it is, and it's probably true - sometimes. In practice, though, there's really not just one American English. What's natural for one American (or Briton, South African, Canadian, Scot, or New Zealander) isn't necessarily natural for another.

So one form might be more natural for one American, while the other might be more natural for another.
 

Do228

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PS - Your question might really be about how unadorned American English sometimes is.

I don't know whether American English is actually less ornate than British. We certainly like to believe it is, and it's probably true - sometimes. In practice, though, there's really not just one American English. What's natural for one American (or Briton, South African, Canadian, Scot, or New Zealander) isn't necessarily natural for another.

So one form might be more natural for one American, while the other might be more natural for another.

Don't know if it's true but I read the other day that "quite" is used much less often in American than in British English. Also, it can have a different meaning, e.g. when somebody says "I watched a movie last night. It was quite good", this would be interpreted as "It was really good" in America and as "It was OK but nothing special" in Britain.
 

Charlie Bernstein

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Don't know if it's true but I read the other day that "quite" is used much less often in American than in British English. Also, it can have a different meaning, e.g. when somebody says "I watched a movie last night. It was quite good", this would be interpreted as "It was really good" in America and as "It was OK but nothing special" in Britain.
Yes, we'd usually say the movie was real good or really good. (They mean the same thing. Really is more grammatical, of course.)

The shades of meaning behind the British quite are really - uh - quite interesting!
 

GeneD

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The meaning of "quite" is a mystery for me. For instance, I don't have the faintest idea what Piscean meant by it in post #9. :-D
 

GeneD

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Now GS's comment in #10 is a mystery for me :-D. What do you mean?
 

Charlie Bernstein

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Yup! Sometimes it's informative for students to read our banter - a window into conversational English. But I suppose sometimes it's just confusing.
 

Rover_KE

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I was affirming that Charlie was quite right.
Yes – in BE, 'Quite' on its own is sometimes used as a expression of agreement with what has just been said—like the infuriating 'Absolutely'.
 

Raymott

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I'd say it means "Indeed".
 
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