[Grammar] Future perfect tense. I will have received the gift by ...

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Daria3955

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Hello and thank you for your kind help. Been practicing English for a while and I've come across some problems regarding the usage of the future perfect

I would like to ask, which one is the most grammatically correct one and why?

1.he said i will have received the gift by.."/ he said i would've received the gift by.."
Which one is the correct one? And why?

Also, what is the difference between the correct sentence and "he said I would receive the gift by.."

2. Which one is the grammatically correct one?
"I've been knocking but no one has answered .. OR "I've been knocking but no one answered.."

3. "Now I have to wait until the morning until I will have been answered" is that sentence correct?

Thank you very much for your help, I appreciate it!
 

jutfrank

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1. will could be appropriate if the date is still in the future at the time of speaking. If the date is in the past, would is appropriate.

1a. The difference is of aspect. Simply speaking, aspect is a way of looking at time. The perfect aspect is retrospective. In this case, by using the future perfect the speaker is mentally transporting himself to the future date (if it is indeed in the future) and looking back at the span of time leading up to that point. If you want a more detailed explanation, I suggest you start a new thread.

2. The first option is better. Keep the symmetry of present perfect tenses in both clauses. Both clauses have the same perfect aspect.

3. Grammatically, yes, but no because:

a) There's no obvious point in using a passive there. The active voice will do.
b) It's usually better to use present simple with future time clauses after until.
c) Two untils don't sound good.

You could rephrase it like this:

Now I have to wait until morning for someone to answer me.
Now I have to wait until someone answers me.
 

Daria3955

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Oh, thank you so much.
I have now figured it out completly.

I just want to ask one more thing I have my doubt about:
Which one is the grammatically correct one?


He quit the national team. I think its because He was always benched

**
He quit the national team. I think its because He was always being benched

**
He quit the national team. I think its because He had always been benched (first he had been benched and only than I thought...)

**

He quit the national team. I think its because He has always been benched (to put an emphasis)

**
He quit the national team. I think its because he would've always been benched. (If they hadn't he wouldn't have quit)

I would like to get a last explanation. Thank you for all you do!
 
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jutfrank

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Daria, please don't distract from the main topic of the thread, which is already very broad. I suggest you ask these questions in a new thread, with a relevant title. Thanks.
 

Rover_KE

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... and with a punctuation mark at the end of every sentence.
 
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