[General] It would have been

[Matthew Wai]

I understand "Have" will always be used in base form. Am I correct?

It must be in the base form if used after a modal verb.

 

[Anil Giria]

It must be in the base form if used after a modal verb.

I understand modal verb is could, would, might etc and after that "have" will be used as a base form. Am I correct? Does base form mean "main verb"?

 

[Anil Giria]

Can you please help me understand why second one is incorrect in comparison to first one?

 

[Anil Giria]

No. "The sales targets have been missed three months in a row."

May be missed follow "been" due to passive voice and in active voice it will not ( past participle can't follow the other past participle in any sentence). I am not very sure about it.

 

[MikeNewYork]

Because "would have been easily list out" is wrong and has no meaning.

 

[Anil Giria]

Because "would have been easily list out" is wrong and has no meaning.

It would have been easy for me to list six things.

I would have been easily list out six things.

Does it mean that that if I want to convey that at some time in the past I could have made a list of six things without any difficulty, the sentence will begin with "It" only. ( I am bit confused why we cant begin sentence with 'I") Please clarify

 

[MikeNewYork]

You could say "I would have been easily able to list six things."

 

[Anil Giria]

No, it doesn't mean that. I think that part of your problem is that you are taking elements of one sentence and trying to use them in a different kind of sentence..

Start with the basics and build up:


2c. It would be easy for me to list six things tomorrow (if I had time).
2d. It would have been easy for me to list six things yesterday(if I had had time).

3a/b. I can list six things now/ every day/tomorrow.
3c. I could list six things now/every day/tomorrow (if I had time).
3d. I could have listed six things yesterday. (if I had had time).


Have you any questions about any of these?

Many thanks. This is really very useful. I want to understand what is the difference between these:

(if I had time).
(if I had had time).

 

[Anil Giria]

You could say "I would have been easily able to list six things."

Does it means the same as convey by the below sentence:

It would have been easy for me to list six things.

 

[MikeNewYork]

Yes, the meaning is the same.

 

[Anil Giria]

You could say "I would have been easily able to list six things."

Originally Posted by Anil Giria Does it means the same as convey by the belowthe sentence elow?:

I understand, we don’t change verbs with e /es at the time of asking question with do/does. If so, why have we added "s" in mean?

 

[Matthew Wai]

The 's' in red means the 's' is wrong.

 

[Anil Giria]

The 's' in red means the 's' is wrong.

Sorry. I could not notice it.

 

[Matthew Wai]

I understand modal verb is could, would, might etc and after that "have" will be used as a base form. Am I correct?

I think you are right.

Does base form mean "main verb"?

I think you are wrong, because the main verb in the sentence below is 'been', which is not the base form.

"I would have been easily able to list six things."

 

[Anil Giria]

No, it doesn't mean that. I think that part of your problem is that you are taking elements of one sentence and trying to use them in a different kind of sentence..

Start with the basics and build up:

1a. I list six things every day.
1b. I will list three things tomorrow.
1c. I would list six things now/every day/tomorrow (if I had time).
1d. I would have listed six things yesterday (if I had had time).

2a. It is easy for me to list six things every day.
2b. It will be easy for me to list six things tomorrow.
2c. It would be easy for me to list six things tomorrow (if I had time).
2d. It would have been easy for me to list six things yesterday(if I had had time).

Have you any questions about any of these?

1) I understand that Sl. 1( a to d) and 2 (1 to d) can be used interchangeably in sequence. Am I right?

2) Can we add "been" in sentence 1d as we have added in thread 31. If not Why? (Thread 31- extract: I would have been easily able to list six things.")

3)My original sentence was: I would have been easily list out six things. (this is wrong) and the correct sentence is "I would have been easily able to list six things." I could not understand still that why my original construction was wrong. We have added only "able to"

Please clarify. Thank you.

 

[Matthew Wai]

3)My original sentence was: I would have been easily list out six things. (this is wrong) and the correct sentence is "I would have been easily able to list six things." I could not understand still that why my original construction was wrong.

It is because 'able' is an adjective and 'list' is a verb.
I have been happy. :tick:
I have been laugh. :cross:

 

[Anil Giria]

It would have been easy for me to list six things.

I would have easily listed out six things.

I would have been easily able to list six things.

I understand these sentences are OK and these sentences convey the same meaning. Am I correct?

Can we use "they" instead of "these sentences".

 

[MikeNewYork]

Anil, we are at 5 pages and 46 posts. Are you about done with this?

 

[bhaisahab]

Thread closed.