nelson13
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- Joined
- Oct 13, 2012
- Member Type
- Interested in Language
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- Zhuang
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- Bangladesh
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- Japan
I have re-read a thread:
https://www.usingenglish.com/forum/ask-teacher/180249-sentences-participle.html
This thread reminds me of something, maybe a little different from what is discussed in the thread above.
In Modern English grammar, a relative clause can often be replaced by a participle clause without a change in meaning, like Anyone wanting(= who wants to)watch the game must pay$200.
But when I was in secondary school (by the way, in Hong Kong, senior secondary school should be the equivalent of high school in America), I was told that if the verb of the relative clause is in the perfect tense (sorry I am not sure whether there is a distinction in this case for the present perfect and the past perfect), we cannot turn it into a participle clause simply, which has been substantiated by two native English speakers and Michael Swan, who is author of Practical English Usage. However, this morning I found something of interest; in 'The Plan of an English Dictionary', by 18-century lexicographer Samuel Johnson, is a sentence:
Words having been hitherto considered as separate and unconnected, are now to be
likewise examined as they are ranged in their various relations to others by the
rules of syntax or construction, to which I do not know that any regard has been
yet shown in English dictionaries, and in which the grammarians can give little
assistance.
Johnson's Plan of an English Dictionary
Obviously this sentence means: Words which have been... are now to be....
I believe if what I knew was true, what S. Johnson says in the above is in Early Modern English and very often such a sentence structure at that time cannot be explained by contemporary English rules, but I still hope to know why such a type of sentence is no longer used, and I hope this question is not among those 'often' occasions.
PS That sentence cannot be rewritten as Words, having been..., are now...., because the original sentence, though with a comma, contains a restrictive relative clause.
https://www.usingenglish.com/forum/ask-teacher/180249-sentences-participle.html
This thread reminds me of something, maybe a little different from what is discussed in the thread above.
In Modern English grammar, a relative clause can often be replaced by a participle clause without a change in meaning, like Anyone wanting(= who wants to)watch the game must pay$200.
But when I was in secondary school (by the way, in Hong Kong, senior secondary school should be the equivalent of high school in America), I was told that if the verb of the relative clause is in the perfect tense (sorry I am not sure whether there is a distinction in this case for the present perfect and the past perfect), we cannot turn it into a participle clause simply, which has been substantiated by two native English speakers and Michael Swan, who is author of Practical English Usage. However, this morning I found something of interest; in 'The Plan of an English Dictionary', by 18-century lexicographer Samuel Johnson, is a sentence:
Words having been hitherto considered as separate and unconnected, are now to be
likewise examined as they are ranged in their various relations to others by the
rules of syntax or construction, to which I do not know that any regard has been
yet shown in English dictionaries, and in which the grammarians can give little
assistance.
Johnson's Plan of an English Dictionary
Obviously this sentence means: Words which have been... are now to be....
I believe if what I knew was true, what S. Johnson says in the above is in Early Modern English and very often such a sentence structure at that time cannot be explained by contemporary English rules, but I still hope to know why such a type of sentence is no longer used, and I hope this question is not among those 'often' occasions.
PS That sentence cannot be rewritten as Words, having been..., are now...., because the original sentence, though with a comma, contains a restrictive relative clause.