When Noah awakens, he "realizes" what Ham "had done" to him.

Status
Not open for further replies.

sitifan

Senior Member
Joined
Dec 30, 2006
Member Type
English Teacher
Native Language
Chinese
Home Country
Taiwan
Current Location
Taiwan
When Noah awakens, he realizes what Ham had "done to him" (v. 29).
The above sentence is quoted from JBL 124/1 (2005) 25-40.
Is the past perfect tense grammatically correct?
 

jutfrank

VIP Member
Joined
Mar 5, 2014
Member Type
English Teacher
Native Language
English
Home Country
England
Current Location
England
Here are three different forms of the verse, from three popular versions of the Bible:

NIV: When Noah awoke from his wine and found out what his youngest son had done to him, he said ...

ESV: When Noah awoke from his wine and knew what his youngest son had done to him, he said ...

KJV: And Noah awoke from his wine, and knew what his younger son had done unto him. And he said ...

I don't know what 'JBL' is. Is the sentence you quoted part of a commentary or part of an actual translation?
 

sitifan

Senior Member
Joined
Dec 30, 2006
Member Type
English Teacher
Native Language
Chinese
Home Country
Taiwan
Current Location
Taiwan
Please read page 26 of Journal of Biblical Literature 124/1 (2005) (page 2 of the PDF below).
https://nakedbiblepodcast.com/wp-co...a-Noahs-nakedness-and-the-curse-on-Canaan.pdf
Shem and Japheth take a garment and enter the tent backwards. With eyes averted, they cover their father (v. 23). When Noah awakens, he realizes what Ham had "done to him" (v. 29). He then blesses Shem and Japheth, but curses Ham's youngest son, Canaan (vv. 25-27).
 

jutfrank

VIP Member
Joined
Mar 5, 2014
Member Type
English Teacher
Native Language
English
Home Country
England
Current Location
England
I see. Notice how the words "had done to him" are in quotation marks. That means it's a quote from the Bible. I didn't notice that in your original post.

Normally, the present tense when Noah awakens would be followed by a present tense has done to him, but in this case the writer is quoting from the Bible, so he uses the original words.
 

sitifan

Senior Member
Joined
Dec 30, 2006
Member Type
English Teacher
Native Language
Chinese
Home Country
Taiwan
Current Location
Taiwan
I see. Notice how the words "had done to him" are in quotation marks. That means it's a quote from the Bible. I didn't notice that in your original post.

Normally, the present tense when Noah awakens would be followed by a present tense has done to him, but in this case the writer is quoting from the Bible, so he uses the original words.
According to the article, only the words "done to him" are in quotation marks; the word had is not.
 
Last edited:

jutfrank

VIP Member
Joined
Mar 5, 2014
Member Type
English Teacher
Native Language
English
Home Country
England
Current Location
England
Oh, yes, you're right. In that case, the writer should better have used has or put the word had inside the quote.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Top