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Old 09-May-2008, 11:35
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Default please explain is there any difference in meaning

Original sentence from newspaper:
Not only are there delays in setting up new infrastructure, what exists is not being utilised effectively.
Is it ok if I use 'there are' instead of 'are there' in the above sentence does it change the meaning of the sentence or both forms is acceptable?
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Old 09-May-2008, 11:37
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Default Re: please explain is there any difference in meaning

The subject-verb pair is inverted with "not only":

Ex: not only are there <inverted/switched around>
Ex: not only there are <not inverted>

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