will be marrided for 30 years in January

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ostap77

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"The future perfect can also be used to express states that will have endured in the future for a period time as measured at some future date"

***This coming January we will have been married for 30 years.***

"In some American dialects, a pattern consisting of will+be+the past participle,which expresses the state of being, is substituted for future perfect. Thus one is often likely to hear''

***In January we will be married for 30 years.***


I was just thinking whether according to the above given information the following sentence might be interpreted in two different ways?

***When you guys come I will be watching the soccer finals for 30 minutes.**

If somebody said that, I would understad it in two different ways depending on the contex

1)If it's written on the test or uttered semiformally it would mean that when they come the speaker will start watching and continue to do that for 30 minutes?

2)If the above given sentence was preceded with another sentence like "It's too bad you can't get off work earlier." and was uttered informally, I would understand it as when they come after work to watch the game I will have been watching it for 30 minutes?


*********SORRY FOR A TYPO IN THE HEADING**********
 
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apex2000

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***In January we will (have been) (be) married for 30 years.***


I was just thinking whether according to the above given information the following sentence might be interpreted in two different ways??

***When you guys come I will be watching the soccer finals for 30 minutes.**

If somebody said that, I would understad it in two different ways depending on the contex

1)If it's written on the test or uttered semiformally it would mean that when they come the speaker will start watching and continue to do that for 30 minutes??

Only one question mark is required! Yes, that could be the meaning, but it would be more usual to mention time of arrival for clarification. Either formally or informally - there is no semiformally.

2)If the above given sentence was preceded with another sentence like "It's too bad you can't get off work earlier." and was uttered informally, I would understand it as when they come after work to watch the game I will have been watching it for 30 minutes???
You should still use 'I will have been', again a time indication would help.

There are some assumptions here. If the guys know the time for kick-off they will understand that you will have watched the game for 30 minutes before their due arrival. If they do not know the time for kick-off then they would understand that you would be watching the game for 30 minutes after their arrival.
 

Khosro

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***This coming January we will have been married for 30 years.***

"In some American dialects, a pattern consisting of will+be+the past participle,which expresses the state of being, is substituted for future perfect. Thus one is often likely to hear''

***In January we will be married for 30 years.***

I remember that I asked Raymott about the same topic few days ago. I want to know if it is really "will+be+the past participle". Is it not "will+be+adjective"? Is "married" used here because it is the past participle of "marry" or the reason is that it is a well-known adjective? Are we allowed to make sentences with "will+be+the past participle" or only when the past participle is a well-known adjective (listed in the dictionaries as adjective)?
 

ostap77

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I remember that I asked Raymott about the same topic few days ago. I want to know if it is really "will+be+the past participle". Is it not "will+be+adjective"? Is "married" used here because it is the past participle of "marry" or the reason is that it is a well-known adjective? Are we allowed to make sentences with "will+be+the past participle" or only when the past participle is a well-known adjective (listed in the dictionaries as adjective)?


Khorso, I got this example "will be marrid for 30 years" from a grammar text-book by Ron Cowan "The teacher's grammar of English". There is a passage that explanes that such things might be heard in AmE.
 

ostap77

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***In January we will (have been) (be) married for 30 years.***


I was just thinking whether according to the above given information the following sentence might be interpreted in two different ways??

***When you guys come I will be watching the soccer finals for 30 minutes.**

If somebody said that, I would understad it in two different ways depending on the contex

1)If it's written on the test or uttered semiformally it would mean that when they come the speaker will start watching and continue to do that for 30 minutes??

Only one question mark is required! Yes, that could be the meaning, but it would be more usual to mention time of arrival for clarification. Either formally or informally - there is no semiformally.

2)If the above given sentence was preceded with another sentence like "It's too bad you can't get off work earlier." and was uttered informally, I would understand it as when they come after work to watch the game I will have been watching it for 30 minutes???
You should still use 'I will have been', again a time indication would help.

There are some assumptions here. If the guys know the time for kick-off they will understand that you will have watched the game for 30 minutes before their due arrival. If they do not know the time for kick-off then they would understand that you would be watching the game for 30 minutes after their arrival.

Thanks a lot for your advice. If a person threw in already "will+already+be, would that eliminate ambiguity?
 

Khosro

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Khorso, I got this example "will be marrid for 30 years" from a grammar text-book by Ron Cowan "The teacher's grammar of English". There is a passage that explanes that such things might be heard in AmE.
Yes you are right. I have no problem with this sentence being correct and I think it is a good sentence, but why? My question is not about future perfect in comparison to "will+be+past participle". I just want to know if we use "married" because it is just a "past participle" or because it is an adjective.
 

engee30

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Yes you are right. I have no problem with this sentence being correct and I think it is a good sentence, but why? My question is not about future perfect in comparison to "will+be+past participle". I just want to know if we use "married" because it is just a "past participle" or because it is an adjective.

Logic tells me that this married functions as predicate adjective here. Otherwise, the meaning would be as if someone will have been married (by a priest) for 30 years. :-o Mind you, before married is an adjective, it's the past participle, not the other way round.
 

BobK

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Of course, you could save yourself a lot of trouble by saying 'It's our thirtieth anniversary next January'! ;-)

b
 

Coolfootluke

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"The future perfect can also be used to express states that will have endured in the future for a period time as measured at some future date"

***This coming January we will have been married for 30 years.***

"In some American dialects, a pattern consisting of will+be+the past participle,which expresses the state of being, is substituted for future perfect. Thus one is often likely to hear''

***In January we will be married for 30 years.***


I was just thinking whether according to the above given information the following sentence might be interpreted in two different ways?

***When you guys come I will be watching the soccer finals for 30 minutes.**

If somebody said that, I would understad it in two different ways depending on the contex

1)If it's written on the test or uttered semiformally it would mean that when they come the speaker will start watching and continue to do that for 30 minutes?

2)If the above given sentence was preceded with another sentence like "It's too bad you can't get off work earlier." and was uttered informally, I would understand it as when they come after work to watch the game I will have been watching it for 30 minutes?


*********SORRY FOR A TYPO IN THE HEADING**********
I am not a teacher.

As for marriage, lazy and semi-literate Americans will say that, and the rest of us might on occasion. It's equivalent to, "We will be 30 years married." "Married" gets that treatment because it is intrinsically, insistently ongoing and doesn't need no stinking verbs to help it.

"Watching" is on its own. It needs some tensing to guy it. Nobody I've ever spoken with here would say, "When you guys come I will be watching the soccer finals for 30 minutes" when they mean "When you guys come I'll've been watching the soccer finals for 30 minutes."
 

apex2000

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Thanks a lot for your advice. If a person threw in already "will+already+be, would that eliminate ambiguity?
There is no need for 'already'. It also makes the sentence awkward.
 

ostap77

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I am not a teacher.

As for marriage, lazy and semi-literate Americans will say that, and the rest of us might on occasion. It's equivalent to, "We will be 30 years married." "Married" gets that treatment because it is intrinsically, insistently ongoing and doesn't need no stinking verbs to help it.

"Watching" is on its own. It needs some tensing to guy it. Nobody I've ever spoken with here would say, "When you guys come I will be watching the soccer finals for 30 minutes" when they mean "When you guys come I'll've been watching the soccer finals for 30 minutes."

How about these sentences:

"I'll be done reading(will have read) books by 6 o'clock."

OR

"I'll be finished reding(will have read) books by 6 clock."
 

Coolfootluke

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How about these sentences:

"I'll be done reading(will have read) books by 6 o'clock."

OR

"I'll be finished reding(will have read) books by 6 clock."
I am not a teacher.

First off, there are still people who insist that only "finished" should be used there, never "done", and I myself think that "done" is informal-ish.

You are in a gray area. We often are not very fussy about the more complex tenses in speech. It really should be "I'll have finished ...", but I'd be willing to bet that "be" is more frequent. Either one would be perfectly normal spoken colloquial American English, but I'd say "done" is more frequent.
 

ostap77

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I am not a teacher.

First off, there are still people who insist that only "finished" should be used there, never "done", and I myself think that "done" is informal-ish.

You are in a gray area. We often are not very fussy about the more complex tenses in speech. It really should be "I'll have finished ...", but I'd be willing to bet that "be" is more frequent. Either one would be perfectly normal spoken colloquial American English, but I'd say "done" is more frequent.

I bet these are pecularities one can't get the hang of, unless he's been talking a lot to native speakers. How would you get around the use of the future perfect in conversation?
 

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I bet these are pecularities one can't get the hang of, unless he's been talking a lot to native speakers. How would you get around the use of the future perfect in conversation?

Don't get me wrong---the fairly literate even in a backwater like the United States of America do use all the tenses. Feel free to use the future perfect at all times. Those who don't know the difference won't notice, and those who do will be happier.
 

ostap77

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Don't get me wrong---the fairly literate even in a backwater like the United States of America do use all the tenses. Feel free to use the future perfect at all times. Those who don't know the difference won't notice, and those who do will be happier.

Thanks.:up: You've been a lot of help. Sometimes when I watch American or Canadian series or just talk to people sometimes I get to hear things that I can't fing answers to in a text-book. That's when I go asking a lot of questions around here.!:)
 

ostap77

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I am not a teacher.

First off, there are still people who insist that only "finished" should be used there, never "done", and I myself think that "done" is informal-ish.

You are in a gray area. We often are not very fussy about the more complex tenses in speech. It really should be "I'll have finished ...", but I'd be willing to bet that "be" is more frequent. Either one would be perfectly normal spoken colloquial American English, but I'd say "done" is more frequent.

Here's the extract from Obama's speech:

"In the excerpts, President Obama himself erupts in anger over the Afghan war. When asked about sending in 4,500 more troops to save lives, the President erupted, yelling, “I’m done doing this!”
 

ostap77

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I am not a teacher.

First off, there are still people who insist that only "finished" should be used there, never "done", and I myself think that "done" is informal-ish.

You are in a gray area. We often are not very fussy about the more complex tenses in speech. It really should be "I'll have finished ...", but I'd be willing to bet that "be" is more frequent. Either one would be perfectly normal spoken colloquial American English, but I'd say "done" is more frequent.

Do you get to hear things like "I'll get reading done......."?
 
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Coolfootluke

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Do you get to hear thingslike "I'll get reading done......."?
I am not a teacher.

It's possible, as an answer to, say, "What will you do on the train ride?"
 

ostap77

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I am not a teacher.

It's possible, as an answer to, say, "What will you do on the train ride?"

It can be used only in a specific context? Did you get to hear the dilect use of "to be done" as in " "I am done work for today"?
 

bhaisahab

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It can be used only in a specific context?
What do you think "I'll get reading done" means, ostap? What context would you use it in?
 
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