[Grammar] present perfect vs. past simple

Dear Forum Users,

Could anyone please explain the difference between:

1. It's been a while since we last met.
2. It's been a while since we have met.

Thank you.

Csika

Csika said:

Dear Forum Users,

Could anyone please explain the difference between:

1. It's been a while since we last met.
2. It's been a while since we have met.

Thank you.

Csika

Click to expand...

There is essentially no difference in meaning.

Are they both grammatically correct?

Csika

Csika said:

Are they both grammatically correct?

Csika

Click to expand...

Yes.

Native speakers won't say

2. It's been a while since we have met.

Click to expand...

!

In the negative, it would be correct to use the present perfect,
e.g., we haven't met for quite a while, or we haven't met before.

txali said:

Native speakers won't say 'It's been a while since we have met'.

Click to expand...

Some native speakers do say this.

when I said

Native speakers won't say 'It's been a while since we have met'

Click to expand...

I was indicating that it would be wrong to use the pres.perfect with the second clause: since we [STRIKE]have[/STRIKE] met.

We met then, i.e. some time ago; then is disconnected in time from now±.
It was correct to use the pres.perfect for the first clause since the passage of time—it has been a while—is connected to now.

If this had not been about a discrete activity (our meeting) but describing a continuous activity over time (until now±), we would have used the pres.perfect,
e.g. we have worked on this since <whenever>,
or since we have worked together, we have been on holidays together every year.

txali said:

when I said

Native speakers won't say 'It's been a while since we have met'

Click to expand...

I was indicating that it would be wrong to use the pres.perfect with the second clause: since we [STRIKE]have[/STRIKE] met.

Click to expand...

It is not wrong.

For my part, I may well say:

It's been a while since we met.